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  1. #1
    Unregistered Guest

    33-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the ED

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    33-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the ED with complaints of fever and arthralgias. On visual inspection, there is no obvious swelling of the extremities. Which of the following joints are at greatest risk
    for infection in this patient?

    (A) Atlanto-axial-occipital joint

    (B) Metacarpal and interphalangeal joints

    (C) Sternoclavicular, sacroiliac, and intervertebral joints ans?

    (D) Elbow and shoulder joints

    (E) None of the above; all joints are equally affected

  2. #2
    draft is offline Junior Member 510 points
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    b i think - that's where they shoot up

  3. #3
    usmlethinking is offline Junior Member 510 points
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    Don't waste your brain power to memmorize such stupid question like this. Who cares which joints has the greatest risk of infection. Just look at your patient and ask yourself where is the infection.

  4. #4
    ayosef77 Guest

    Drahmedyosef

    ahmed mohammed yosef
    Quote Originally Posted by Unregistered View Post
    33-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the ED with complaints of fever and arthralgias. On visual inspection, there is no obvious swelling of the extremities. Which of the following joints are at greatest risk
    for infection in this patient?

    (A) Atlanto-axial-occipital joint

    (B) Metacarpal and interphalangeal joints

    (C) Sternoclavicular, sacroiliac, and intervertebral joints ans?

    (D) Elbow and shoulder joints

    (E) None of the above; all joints are equally affected

  5. #5
    Ojelade's Avatar
    Ojelade is offline Newbie 510 points
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    The answer is C - the joints most affected in IV drug abuse are
    - sacroiliac
    - sternoclavicular
    - symphysis pubis
    -vertebral disc spaces

    you can look in the family practice notebook for more details

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