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  1. #1
    Cortez is offline Junior Member
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    deep venous thrombosis in the right leg

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    A 61-year-old man presents with left leg pain and weight loss. On examination, unilateral erythema, swelling, and warmth are noted over the left leg. The man is scheduled for duplex venous ultrasonography, but on the day of his diagnostic procedure, the patient notes that his left leg is no longer painful, but now his right leg is swollen. The ultrasound examination reveals a deep venous thrombosis in the right leg, but no clot in the left leg. Which of the following underlying conditions is the likely cause of this man's presentation?

    A. Diverticulitis
    B. Pancreatic carcinoma
    C. Progressive systemic sclerosis
    D. Rheumatoid arthritis
    E. Schistosomiasis

  2. #2
    Asclepius1's Avatar
    Asclepius1 is offline Ultimate Member 537 points
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    My guess is B. Pancreatic carcinoma . Carcinoma is one of the Verchot triad: statsis, hypercoagluble state, and endothelial injuries

  3. #3
    jnkhampton is offline Newbie
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    One surgeon told me once to think of pancreatic carcinoma and "WANDERING THROMBOSIS" (as he called it)

  4. #4
    Asclepius1's Avatar
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    sounds good to me

  5. #5
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    wam_256 is offline Member 510 points
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    ok, I guess I have to read more.....[IMG]/richedit/smileys/8.gif[/IMG]

  6. #6
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    Its B. As I Saw The Options I Recalled From Clinics.

  7. #7
    ddd
    ddd is offline Junior Member 510 points
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    The answer is B. Mucin ( most pancreatic Ca are adenocarcinomas) acts as phospholipid and activates the coag cascade.

  8. #8
    blrman76 is offline Newbie 510 points
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    Quote Originally Posted by Cortez
    A 61-year-old man presents with left leg pain and weight loss. On examination, unilateral erythema, swelling, and warmth are noted over the left leg. The man is scheduled for duplex venous ultrasonography, but on the day of his diagnostic procedure, the patient notes that his left leg is no longer painful, but now his right leg is swollen. The ultrasound examination reveals a deep venous thrombosis in the right leg, but no clot in the left leg. Which of the following underlying conditions is the likely cause of this man's presentation?

    A. Diverticulitis
    B. Pancreatic carcinoma
    C. Progressive systemic sclerosis
    D. Rheumatoid arthritis
    E. Schistosomiasis
    The answer is B.

    This is called as Trousseau's sign which is migratory thrombophlebitis and is classically seen in pancreatic carcinoma

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