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Coombs test?
A pregnant 38 yr. old woman with two presents at the office concerned about her pregnancy. She is Rh (-), and her husband is Rh (+). Both of her children are also Rh (-). She has had 2 spontaneous abortions and carried a 3rd pregnancy to term, but the child died at birth, diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis. The test of choice to determine the presense of circulating anti-Rh antibody in the mother is: A.) direct Coombs test to measure IgG anti-Rh antibody B.) direct Coombs test to measure IgM anti-Rh antibody C.) indirect Coombs test to measure IgG anti-Rh antibody D.) indirect Coombs test to measure IgM anti-Rh antibody E.) Ouchterlony test to measure precipitin IgG anti-Rh antibody ****The answer is given as C, but I don't understand why do u use indirect vs. direct. My guess was A. . . can someone please explain if you can? I'm so confused |
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coombs test
This is a rather important concept. If you look at the history, you'll notice that the Rh- babies were fine, but she also had a couple of spontaneous abortions (likely because of Rh incompatability with fetuses that were Rh+). So she has probably developed the antibodies against Rh + blood.
A direct coombs on mom would only detect the Abs which may have attached to her RBC's, but this would not happen to her own RBC's because she is Rh- and the Abs are against Rh+ blood. One option might be to check the babies RBC's directly to see if it has any of mom's Abs attached to it, but it's not so practical to get a fetal RBC sample for a direct coombs test. So a better option is to get an indirect coombs test to look for Abs floating around (not attached to RBCs) in mom's plasma instead. If the results are positive, it means that she has Abs in her blood which can cause damage to any future Rh+ fetus that she carries since the Abs would cross the placenta and attach to the babies RBCs (which would cause a + dirct coombs in the fetus). Normal No antibodies are detected.
Abnormal test results may mean
ref: peacehealth.org |
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