may help

[Anonymous]

This week's main subject is Biochemistry. 7 Blocks of 20 qns each ( 140 questions ) + 20 OBG (total of 160) questions for all those Step 2 guys who are still lingering around ;-) in this forum.
Have fun !!

01. In galactosemia, accumulation of which compound in the lens of the eye causes cataract formation?

A. UDP-glucose

B. UDP-galactose

C. Galactose 1-phosphate

D. Galacturonic acid

E. Galactitol



02. Inadequate intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 might lead to a deficiency in which enzyme in fatty acid oxidation?

A. methylmalonyl-CoA mutase

B. L-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase

C. Thiolase

D. enoyl-CoA hydratase

E. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase



03. All of the following are characteristic of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:

A. increased clogging of pancreatic ducts.

B. decreased fertility in males.

C. decreased NaCl levels in sweat.

D. increased viscosity of lung airway secretions.

E. decreased intestinal secretion.



04. Patients with hereditary orotic aciduria are treated by feeding them uridine, which is converted to UMP and other missing pyrimidine nucleotides. This also corrects the over production of orotic acid because:

A. the de novo pathway is no longer blocked.

B. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II is inhibited.

C. dihydroorotate can not be further oxidized.

D. the blockage occurs after the committed step.

E. purine nucleotide synthesis effectively competes for excess PRPP.



05. The conjugation of bilirubin

A. is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome

B. occurs in the Kupfer cells of the liver

C. is inhibited by rifampicin

D. is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase

E. is increased by valproate



06. Following conditions are associated with hyperuriaemia EXCEPT:

A. Down's syndrome

B. Starvation

C. Xanthinuria

D. Psoriasis

E. type I glycogen storage disease (Von Gierke's disease)



07. A 5-month-old male presents with seizures and delayed development. Upon newborn screen he was detected to have hyperphenylalaninemia and is on a phenylalanine-restricted, synthetic diet. The most likely cause for his current symptoms is a

A. defect in tetrahydrofolate reductase.

B. defect in dihydropteridine reductase.

C. tyrosine deficiency.

D. tryptophan deficiency.

E. defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase.



08. A serum sodium value of 115 mEq/liter may be associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

A. Inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

B. Liver disease

C. Addison's disease

D. Water deprivation



09. The discontinuous nature of DNA synthesis:

A. Leads to the formation of Okazaki fragments

B. Means that both 3'->5' and 5'->3' polymerases are used

C. Requires that DNA polymerase III dissociate frequently from the template on both strands of a replication fork

D. Is necessary because synthesis is bidirectional from the initiation point

E. Means that synthesis occurs on the second strand of DNA only after synthesis of the first strand is completed



10. The deformation of an erythrocyte that occurs as this cell flows through a capillary is due to

A. a calcium-mediated phase transition of specific phospholipid classes

B. extensive changes in phospholipid asymmetry in the membrane

C. interactions between integral and peripheral membrane proteins

D. a loss of proteins that are anchored to the membrane by lipids



11. The rationale for treating pre-term neonates with surfactant preparations is to

A. stimulate synthesis of dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine.

B. increase secretion of tubular myelin.

C. accelerate the phagocytic activity of alveolar macrophages.

D. regulate protein trafficking in the Golgi complex.

E. supplement decreased levels of monolayer lipids and proteins.



12. Ammonia is toxic to the central nervous system. One explanation for this toxicity is that reactions using ammonia in the brain deplete the TCA cycle of intermediates. Which following pair of enzymes catalyze these reactions?

A. Glutamate dehydrogenase and glutamine synthetase.

B. Glutathione synthetase and y-glutamyl transpeptidase.

C. Branched chain amino acid transaminase and branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase.

D. Glutaminase and glutamine synthetase.

E. Glutamate dehydrogenase and glutaminase.



13. following statements about chlorides are true EXCEPT:

A. serum chloride level is reduced in diarrhea

B. it is essential for bile formation

C. salivary amylase is activated by chlorides

D. it is involved in regulation of acid base balance

E. it is necessary for formation of gastric juice



14. If after drinking some milk a child develops a stomach ache and diarrhea, it might have:

A. diverticulosis or diverticulitis.

B. a total absence of the Kreb's cycle in all cells.

C. galactosemia.

D. lactose intolerance.



15. Concerning Leptin, all of follwing are true EXCEPT:

A. deficiency is associated with obesity

B. concentrations are positively correlated with body mass index

C. concentrations are usually higher in females than males

D. is a signal produced by adipose tissue

E. acts on the hypothalamus



16. A patient who is suffering from severe liver damage would be expected to show which of thefollowing clinical findings?

A. increased levels of bilirubin

B. decreased levels of bilirubin

C. increase levels of bilirubin diglucuronide

D. increased levels of urobilin and stercobilin

E. none of the above



17. Iron-protein complexes are important for all of the following EXCEPT

A. detoxification of drugs and other xenobiotics.

B. oxygen transport in muscle cells.

C. regulation of mRNA translation and stability.

D. electron transport in mitochondria.

E. storage of excess iron in the plasma.



18. Which of the following compounds is most toxic?

A. glycine

B. phenylpyruvate

C. phenylalanine

D. tyrosine

E. lysine



19. Which of the following antibiotics might allow the formation of a peptide dimer?

A. Erythromycin

B. Tetracycline

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Streptomycin



20. A patient with a PCO2 of 30 and a base deficit of +2 most likely has:

A. respiratory acidosis

B. respiratory alkalosis

C. metabolic acidosis

D. metabolic alkalosis



Block 2
01. Which of the following would occur in untreated diabetes?

A. Hypoglycemia with elevated blood sugar.

B. Ketosis and hypoglycemia.

C. Ketosis and elevated blood sugar.

D. Hyperglycemia accompanied by scurvy.



02. A defect in which of the following enzymes is likely to have the most severe effect on protein digestion?

A. Amylase

B. Carboxypeptidase A

C. Chymotrypsin

D. Elastase

E. Trypsin



03. Characteristics commonly found in conditions which involve abnormalities in porphyrin metabolism include all of the following EXCEPT

A. skin sensitivity.

B. neurologic disturbances.

C. decreased dietary requirement for protein

D. erythrocyte fragility.

E. liver disease



04. Which of the following is not required in the diet of a healthy adult human?

A. cysteine

B. isoleucine

C. lysine

D. methionine

E. phenylalanine



05. Hyponatraemia is usually found in all of following EXCEPT:

A. Severe liver disease

B. Bronchial carcinoma

C. Cushings syndrome

D. Ingestion of ecstasy

E. Untreated congestive cardiac failure



06. Folic acid

A. is absorbed predominantly in the jejunum

B. body stores are adequate for 3 years

C. is effective treatment for alcohol-induced macrocytosis

D. bioavailability is improved by cooking

E. blood level is reduced in stagnant loop syndrome



07. If a child develops cataracts and a lowering of intelligence after drinking milk regularly he/she is probably suffering from:

A. lactose intolerance.

B. diabetes.

C. galactosemia.

D. disaccharidase deficiency.



08. Vitamin A deficiency can result in

A. weakness of left-right eye movement.

B. dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.

C. night blindness and Bitot's spots.

D. eye strain, sensitivity to light and cracks at corners of mouth.

E. increased fragility of red blood cell membranes.



09. One reason that exercise is beneficial in the treatment of Type II diabetes mellitus is that

A. fatty acid synthesis is activated in the liver.

B. glucose transporters are activated in the liver.

C. glucose transporters are activated in the muscle.

D. ketone body synthesis is inhibited in the liver.

E. glycogen breakdown is inhibited in the muscle.



10. A deficiency in glucose 6-phosphatase will cause all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Fasting hypoglycemia

B. Negative blood glucose response to galactose injection

C. Lactic acidosis

D. Hyperlipidemia

E. Abnormal glycogen structure



11. G proteins are

A. growth factors

B. part of cell surface receptors

C. Immunoglobulins

D. Albumins

E. nuclear proteins



12. Human breast milk

A. can be safely used in babies with galactosaemia

B. contains more protein than cow's milk

C. contains less fat than cow's milk

D. has a relatively high sodium content

E. contains less carbohydrate than cow's milk



13. Bile acids

A. are formed in the pancreas from cholesterol

B. are conjugated with taurine and glycine before excretion into bile

C. are about 50% reabsorbed from the intestinal lumen

D. cannot be metabolised by intestinal bacteria

E. are synthesised at up to 10mg/day in normal individuals



14. Protamine:

A. is a basic protein

B. 1mg antagonises 100 mg heparin

C. is a myocardial stimulant

D. is contraindicated in hepatic failure

E. is 60% protein bound



15. When the level of glucose in the blood becomes very low to the point a person feels faint or goes into a coma, the condition is called:

A. hypotension.

B. diabetes.

C. starvation.

D. hypoglycemia.

E. Diabetic ketosis.



16. Following statement concerning nephritic syndrome are true EXCEPT:

A. There is an increase in the interstitial fluid volume and oedema.

B. There is renal retention of sodium and water.

C. There is an increase in glomerular capillary permeability to albumin leading to proteinuria.

D. Lipiduria may lead to the presence of oval fat bodies in the urine.

E. Hypoalbuminaemia (low plasma albumin concentration) is primarily due to decreased protein synthesis by the liver.



17. If a person had glossitis, cheilosis and cataracts you might suspect a deficiency of:

A. niacin.

B. riboflavin.

C. vitamin C.

D. thiamin.

E. Vitamin A



18. Which of the following plays a major role in regulating the elimination of alcohol from the body?

A. Liver alcohol dehydrogenase

B. muscle hexokinase

C. Brain acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

D. Kidney antidiuretic hormone

E. Lung respiratory rate



19. which one of the following statements concerning gluconeogeenesis is false:

A. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in liver

B. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in adipose tissue

C. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in kidney

D. The pathway is stimulated by glucagons

E. The pathway is inhibited by insulin



20. Tyrosine, in addition to being found in protein, can also be converted to:

A. Tryptophan.

B. Serotonin (in the brain).

C. Adrenalin (in the adrenal gland).

D. thyroid hormones.

E. ACTH



Block 3
01. Acidosis may result in all of following EXCEPT:

A. potassium retention

B. a rise in plasma chloride

C. a low pCO2

D. peripheral vasodilation

E. tetany



02. The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is:

A. a mutation in the alpha 1 chain of Type I collagen.

B. a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.

C. a deficiency in lysyl oxidase.

D. a deficiency in collagenase.



03. Methylmalonyl CoA mutase is an enzyme involved in the catabolism of odd chain fatty acids. Its coenzyme is

A. biotin.

B. tetrahydrobiopterin.

C. vitamin C.

D. vitamin B12.

E. NADH.



04. Transport of neutral amino acids in the epithelial cells of intestine and renal tubules is decreased in:

A. Niemann-Pick disease

B. Tay-Sachs disease

C. Hartnup’s disease

D. Gaucher’s disease

E. all of above



05. Which of the following enzymes is activated in response to high levels of insulin?

A. Glucokinase

B. Hexokinase

C. phosphofructokinase-1, muscle

D. phosphofructokinase-1, liver



06. low levels of plasma renin are associated with:

A. pregnancy

B. malignant hypertention

C. excess sodium uptake

D. none of above



07. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

A. are antagonists of prostaglandins in their binding to membrane receptors.

B. are agonists of eicosanoids in their binding to nuclear receptors.

C. activate the hydrolysis of polyunsaturated fatty acids from membrane phospholipids.

D. inhibit the conversion of arachidonic acid to oxidized, cyclized products.



08. Which of the following have their own self replicating DNA?

A. Nucleolus

B. Mitochondria

C. Lysosomes

D. Glogi body

E. rough Endothelial reticule



09. A defect in the enzyme that catalyzes the attack of guanine on phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) was discovered in a biopsy sample from a patient with hyperuricemia. Which metabolic process can you conclude was defective in the patient?

A. Purine salvage

B. De novo synthesis of inosinic acid (IMP)

C. Synthesis of GMP from IMP

D. Regulation of PRPP amidotransferase

E. Feedback inhibition of PRPP synthetase



10. Inability to lower the urine pH below 5.2 is a characteristic feature of

A. chronic renal failure

B. respiratory failure

C. renal tubular acidosis

D. chronic lithium therapy

E. cranial diabetes insipidus



11. Elastin is like collagen in each of the following ways EXCEPT:

A. it is found in striated fibrils.

B. it is covalently cross-linked to other elastin molecules through structures derived from lysine residues.

C. it has a higher than average content of the amino acid proline.

D. approximately 30% of its amino acids are glycine residues



12. Which two diseases are most likely caused by eating too much sucrose, based on current knowledge, all other factors in the diet being equal?

A. Galactosemia and tooth decay.

B. Diverticulosis and diabetes.

C. Obesity and heart disease.

D. Diverticulosis and obesity.



13. An enzyme which joins DNA molecules together is called

A. a restriction endonuclease.

B. a DNA lyase

C. a DNA ligase.

D. a DNA polymerase.

E. a reverse transcriptase.



14. The difference between Type I (juvenile) and Type II (maturity-onset) diabetes is:

A. blood glucose is low in Type I diabetes and high in Type II.

B. Type II responds readily to injections of insulin - Type I doesn't.

C. blood insulin is elevated in Type I but not in Type II.

D. Type II is sometimes corrected by losing weight - Type I isn't.



15. Graves disease results from

A. binding of an immunoglobulin to the TSH receptor on thyroid cells.

B. insufficient dietary iodine.

C. hypothalamic insufficiency.

D. pituitary insufficiency.



16. In the treatment of hypercholesterolemia, the rationale for increased regular exercise is to

A. increase the ratio: total cholesterol/high density lipoprotein cholesterol

B. decrease the reabsorption of bile acids.

C. reduce the binding of ligands to the apo-E receptor.

D. reduce the formation of oxidized low density lipoproteins.

E. elevate the level of high density lipoproteins.



17. All of the following compounds EXCEPT which one would be expected to be found in excess amounts in the urine of an individual with phenylketonuria?

A. Tyrosine

B. phenyllactic acid

C. phenylacetic acid

D. phenylpyruvic acid



18. The regulatory mechanism of body water is influenced by the hormone

A. ACTH

B. Gonadotropin

C. Epinephrine

D. Insulin

E. Oxitocin



19. Defective intestinal absorption of copper occurs in

A. Menke’s disease

B. Wilsion’s disease

C. Gaucher’s disease

D. Her’s disease

E. None of above



20. For what metabolic process is riboflavin required?

A. The cellular oxidation of hydrogen resulting in heat production.

B. The synthesis of the protein, collagen.

C. The synthesis of nonessential amino acids.

D. The synthesis of glycogen from glucose-phosphate.



Block 4 (pretty simple qns)


01. Which of the following lipids contains phosphate?

A. Cholesterol

B. Cerebroside

C. Testosterone

D. Diacylglycerol

E. Sphingomyelin

F. Ceramide



02. Ribosomes are involved in:

A. the final stage of protein synthesis

B. oxidation-reduction reactions

C. breakdown of hydrogen peroxide

D. nucleic acid synthesis

E. none of above



03. The common disaccharide, sucrose, contains which of the following monosaccharide residues?

A. glucose and galactose

B. glucose and mannose

C. glucose and fructose

D. glucose only

E. mannose and galactose



04. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

A. Asparagine

B. Valine

C. Glutamine

D. Histidine

E. Leucine



05. In the synthesis of gangliosides, serine contributes a(n)

A. amino group that is modified by N-acetylneuraminate.

B. hydroxyl group that become phosphorylated.

C. amino group that becomes sulfated.

D. carboxylate group that reacts with phosphatidylcholine.

E. hydroxyl group that forms a glycosidic bond.



06. Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?

A. Oleic acid

B. Stearic acid

C. Linolenic acid

D. Arachidonic acid



07. An essential amino acid

A. can be synthesised if there is a source of nitrotgen

B. can be synthesised if protein intake is adequate

C. cannot be synthesised in sufficient quantities to meet the bodies need

D. none of the above



08. Compounds that protect against damage by reactive oxygen species include

A. ascorbic acid and vitamin K.

B. ascorbic acid and vitamin E.

C. carotene and ferrous ion.

D. nicotinic acid (niacin) and vitamin E

E. riboflavin and vitamin A.



09. In response to metabolic acidosis, biosyntheis of glutaminase increases in:

A. Brain

B. Liver

C. Intestine

D. Kidney

E. Muscle



10. The two hormones that intimately regulate basal metabolism are:

A. thyroxine and insulin.

B. gastrin and insulin.

C. triiodothyronine and thyroxine.

D. insulin and serotonin.



11. In the disease scurvy, a protein that may not be properly synthesized is:

A. Trypsin

B. opsin

C. hemoglobin

D. Collagen

E. Insulin



12. The carbon and nitrogen atoms in the pyrimidine ring system are derived from

A. aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate

B. aspartate and glycine.

C. glutamine and glycine.

D. glutamate and carbamoyl phosphate

E. glycine and carbamoyl phosphate.



13. Enzymes that catalyze stepwise hydrolysis of mononucleotides from one end of a polynucleotide chain are
A. polymerases.
B. endonucleases.
C. ligases.
D. exonucleases.
E.nickases.

14. McArdle's disease is casued by the deficiency of :
A. glucose 6-phosphatase
B. alpha 1,6-glucosidase.
C. glycogen synthase.
D. glycogen phosphorylase.

15. In uncompetitive inhibition of enzyme
A. Inhibitor binds with enzyme-substrate complex
B. Inhibitor inactivates the enzyme to form enzyme-substrate complex
C. Inhibitor replaces substrate to form enzyme-inhibitor complex
D. None of above

16. In the gluconeogenesis of pyruvate, pyruvate is initially converted to
A. acetyl CoA
B. oxaloacetate
C. phosphoenol Pyruvate
D. glycerol

17. All of the following TCA cycle intermediates participate in other metabolic pathways EXCEPT:
A. alpha keto glutarate
B. citrate
C. fumarate
D. isocitrate
E.oxaloacetate

18. Glycolytic pathway is inhibited by
A. Chloride
B. Bromide
C. Fluoride
D. Iodide
E.none of above

19. The straight chains of glycogen molecules are broken down by
A. protein kinase
B. glycogen phosphorylase
C. a debranching enzyme
D. Adenylate cyclase


20. How many moles of ATP are produced from the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis?

A. 8

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

E. 1

Block 5

01 The amino acid that absorbs light at 280 nm.

A. Lysine

B. Histidine

C. Tryptophan

D. Glutamate

E. Cysteine



02. Compared to the uncatalyzed reaction, enzymes cannot change the

A. equilibrium of a reaction.

B. temperature optimum of a reaction.

C. pH optimum of a reaction.

D. stereospecificity of a reaction.

E. rate of a reaction.



03. Enhancers are DNA sequences that increase the activity of promoters. Which statement about these sequences is NOT TRUE?

A. They can exert their stimulatory activity over thousands of bases.

B. They are effective when present on either DNA strand.

C. They can act from both upstream (5') and downstream (3') of promoters.

D. They show tissue-specificity; i.e., a particular enhancer is active in only certain cells.

E. Their activity is independent of protein binding.



04. A globular protein that consists mainly of alpha helices shows a pattern in which every third amino acid in the helices is hydrophobic. This pattern is likely to contribute to the forces holding the globular protein together by

A. preventing the formation of turns.

B. preventing the formation of intramolecular ion pairs.

C. making proteolytic digestion impossible.

D. making one side of the helices hydrophobic to form the interior of the protein.

E. decreasing the interaction between proteins.



05. Which of the following cellular dimensions is the largest?

A. The diameter of a tRNA molecule.

B. The diameter of a ribosome.

C. The diameter of a molecule of glucose.

D. The distance across a lipid bilayer.

E. The diameter of a DNA double helix.



06. During lyposomal digestion lipid is oxidized to a chemically heterogeneous pigmented substance called:

A. melanin

B. lipofuscin

C. lectoferrin

D. xanthocyanin

E. none of above



07. Both zinc fingers and SH2 domains

A. are localized to exoplasmic regions of plasma membrane proteins.

B. are found in members of the receptor tyrosine kinase family.

C. are subject to reversible phosphorylation and dephosphorylation.

D. direct the interaction of macromolecules in signal transduction pathways



08. Concerning glycogen which of the following statement is true?

A. a straight chain of alpha-D-glucose

B. a tree-like molecule of beta-D-glucose

C. a polymer of alpha-1,4 glucose residues with alpha-1,6 branch points

D. the main component of plant cell walls



09. Which of the following RIA calibration plots is theoretically linear for all concentrations of antigen? Assume that Y= % bound and X= unlabelled antigen concentration.

A. Y versus X

B. Log (Y) versus log (X)

C. 1/log(Y) versus log (X)

D. logit (Y) versus log (X)

E. none of above



10. Oligosaccharides are commonly found linked to protein through which of the following amino acids.

A. glutamate, aspartate and arginine

B. leucine, lysine and tyrosine

C. cysteine, methionine and histidine

D. asparagine, serine and threonine

E. proline, hydroxyproline and glycine



11. The enzyme believed to unwind the duplex DNA helix to expose single-stranded regions suitable for chromosomal replication in E. coli is called:

A. helicase

B. gyrase

C. ligase

D. primase

E. topoisomerase



12. The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on:

A. the absence of competing ligands.

B. the amino acid residues lining the binding site.

C. the presence of hydrating water molecules.

D. the opposite chirality of the binding ligand.

E. the similar size and shape of protein and ligand.



13. It important to prevent the entry of oxygen into polyacrylamide gels during the setting process because oxygen

A. will inhibit the setting of the gel

B. will catalyse the setting of the polyacrylamide gel

C. cause the acrylamide to become hygroscopic

D. cause polyacrylamide to become highly flammable.

E. Will accelerate hydrolysis of polyacrylamide



14. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The ratio of purines to pyrimidines in double-stranded DNA is 2:1 (because purines are larger than pyrimidines).

B. The ratio of T in double-stranded DNA to U in single-stranded RNA is 1:2.

C. The ratio of G to C in single-stranded RNA is 1:1.

D. The ratio of G to C in double-stranded DNA is 1:1.

E. The ratio of G to A in double-stranded DNA is 1:1.



15: DNA can always be distinguished from RNA because

A. DNA contains uracil, whereas RNA contains thymine.

B. DNA is larger.

C. The phosphodiester bond in DNA is stable to alkali, whereas that in RNA is sensitive to alkali.

D. nucleases attack DNA, but not RNA.

E. DNA is in the nucleus, whereas RNA is in the cytoplasm.



16. In oxygenated myoglobin, the oxygen molecule

A. replaces a histidine side chain in the iron coordination system.

B. causes the reversible oxidation of Fe2+ to Fe3+.

C. forces a change in conformation of one alpha-helix to a beta-strand

D. is bound between two iron-porphyrin prosthetic groups.

E. becomes the sixth member of the iron coordination system.



17. All of the following enzymes are serine proteinases EXCEPT

A. trypsin.

B. plasminogen activator.

C. neutrophil elastase.

D. factor Xa

E. collagenase.



18. During fatty acid synthesis a cysteine residue and a pantetheine moiety of fatty acid synthase

A. chelate Zn2+ in the active site.

B. undergo reversible oxidation and reduction.

C. form covalent crosslinks with other protein groups.

D. form high-energy intermediates with substrates.

E. are phosphorylated to achieve short-term regulation.



19. Glucose is radiolabeled at its 1 position and fed to an organism. Where does the label end up in serine?

A. The alpha carboxylate

B. The alpha carbon

C. The hydroxymethyl sidechain

D. None of these



20. A principal difference between facilitated and active transport systems in membranes is the

A. direction of solute movement relative to its concentration gradient

B. sensitivity to inhibition.

C. specificity and binding affinity toward the solute being transported

D. kinetics of the process.

E. number of transmembrane domains in the transport proteins


Block 6
Q:1 Secretory proteins are sorted and packaged into secretory vesicles by what cellular organelle?
A. endosome
B. lysosome
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Golgi network
E. ribosome


Q:2 Techniques for disrupting cell membranes include use of :

A. detergent

B. wax

C. cider oil

D. guar gum

E. all of above



Q:3 What type of compound is lecithin?

A. Bile salt

B. Glycolipid

C. Lipoprotein

D. Phsopholipid



Q.4: Enzymes are specialized proteins accelerating chemical reactions EXCEPT:

A. they are called catalyst

B. they itself gets changed in the process

C. they have substrate binding site.

D. They require cofactors

E. They have active site



Q.5: A substrate for glycogen synthase is

A. glucose-6-phosphate.

B. glucose-1-phosphate.

C. free glucose.

D. UDP-glucose.

E. None of the above are correct

Q.6: Dental carries caused by the local production of acids by bacteria is inhibited by
A. calcium
B. bromide
C. fluoride
D. selenium
E. zinc
Q.7 Where is the site of maltose breakdown?

A. In the mouth.

B. In the stomach.

C. In the lumen of the small intestine

D. In the wall of the small intestine.

Q.8 The initial function of bile is to.....

A. Coagulate chyme from the stomach

B. Increase sugar uptake by the small intestine

C. Neutralize stomach contents.

D. Act as an emulsifier and break up fat droplets.

Q.9: Secretion of aldosterone is stimulated by:
A. A fall in plasma potassium concentration.
B. An increase in the secretion of renin.
C. A rise in pressure in the afferent arteriole.
D. A rise in plasma osmolality
Q: 10 Which condition leads to tooth decay?

A. Drinking high sugar soft drinks.

B. Putting sugar and milk on cereal.

C. Eating caramels.

D. All of the above.

Q.11 A specific role of thiamin is:

A. It is a cofactor required for iron uptake.

B. It is involved in the synthesis of collagen in skin.

C. As a coenzyme in the conversion of pyruvate to acetate + CO2.

D. It is an antioxidant.

Q.12: The function of the urea cycle is to

A. convert amino acids into ketoacids

B. convert ketoacids into amino acids

C. convert ammonia into a less toxic form

D. enure that urine does not precipitate



Q.13: When too much iron accumulates in the tissues, the condition is called ..

A. Ferr disease

B. Cirrhosis

C. Siderosis

D. Anemia

Q.14: Both gastrin and insulin are:

A. enzymes.

B. antibodies.

C. essential amino acids.

D. hormones.

Q: 15 Under anaerobic conditions, a primary product of glycolysis is

A. lactate.

B. pyruvate.

C. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.

D. ethanol.

E. none of the above are correct.



Q.16: An essential amino acid is

A. one that the body can synthesize under essential conditions

B. one that the body cannot synthesize

C. one that is essential to flagella motion

D. one that is essentially easy to synthesize.



Q.17: Which type of enzyme can supply the citric acid cycle with oxaloacetate from pyruvate?

A. an isomerase

B. a mutase

C. a ligase

D. a kinase

E. a lyase



Q.18: Glycogenesis is the

A. breakdown of glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate and glucose

B. formation of glycogen from UDP-glucose

C. formation of glucose from glycolytic and TCA intermediates

D. breakdown of glucose to Pyruvate

Q.19: Which of the following is not a fate of cholesterol in mammalian tissues?

A. Bile salts
B. Acetyl CoA
C. Cholesterol esters
D. Steroid hormones
E. Incorporation into VLDL.

Q.20: Elastin is like collagen in each of the following ways EXCEPT

A. it is found in striated fibrils.

B. it has a higher than average content of the amino acid proline.

C. it is covalently cross-linked to other elastin molecules through structures derived from lysine residues.

D. approximately 30% of its amino acids are glycine residues



Block 7

01. Upon agar gel electrophoresis of serum proteins:

A. albumin is the fastest moving fraction

B. albumin remains at the origin

C. alpha-1-globulin is the fastest moving fraction

D. beta globulin remains at the origin

E. gamma globulin is the fastest moving fraction



02. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of

A. two glucose units.

B. galactose and glucose.

C. lactose and ribose.

D. glucose and fructose.

E. glucose and ribose.



03. Molisch’s test is used for the detection of :

A. Lipids

B. Cholesterol

C. Bilirubin

D. Carbohydrates

E. free fatty acids



04. Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?

A. Arachidonic acid

B. Linolenic acid

C. Oleic acid

D. Stearic acid



05. Libermann-Burchard reaction is used to estimate:

A. Galactose

B. alkaline phosphatase

C. cholesterol

D. cyanide

E. starch



06. Ribozymes consists of

A. RNA and DNA.

B. only RNA.

C. RNA and a catalytic protein.

D. RNA and a prosthetic group.



07. Insulin inhibits

A. fat mobilization from adipose tissue.

B. cholesterol biosynthesis.

C. fatty acid synthesis.

D. the transport of glucose into muscle cells.



08. Ninhydrin stain is used for detection of :

A. Phospholipids

B. Sugars

C. fatty acids

D. amino acids

E. ketones



09. In sickle cell anemia, the basis of the malfunction of the hemoglobin molecule is:

A. reduced affinity for oxygen.

B. incorrect secondary structure.

C. substitution of a single amino acid.

D. decreased tertiary structure changes.



10. Arginine is detected by:

A. Salkowaski’s test

B. Barfoed’s test

C. Hopkins-Cole reaction

D. Bial’s test

E. Sakaguchi reaction



11. Factors that affects electrophoresis of any macromolecule are:

A. Mass

B. Charge

C. charge and mass

D. density

E. viscosity



12. Acetone bodies in urine are detected using:

A. Rothera’s test

B. Benzidine test

C. Heller’s nitric acid ring test

D. Fouchet’s test



13. In Fiske-Subbarow’s method, blue color is formed due to the rection of inorganic phosphate with :

A. Copper

B. Lower oxides of molybdenum

C. Biuret reaction

D. Sodium nitroprusside



14. General characteristics of the water soluble vitamins include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. they must be consumed daily

B. excesses are eliminated from the kidneys

C. they are absorbed directly into the blood

D. toxic levels in the body are rarely found



15. Albumin in urine is detected by precipitation with:

A. 10% Barium chloride solution

B. Benedicts reagent

C. Sulphosalicylic acid reagent

D. Molybdic acid reagent



16. Bacteria entering the stomach are most often killed by

A. Acid

B. Lysozyme

C. Pepsin

D. Trypsin



17. Excessive excretion of vitamin C in urine is estimated using:

A. 1-nitroso-2-naphtol

B. 2:6 dichlorophenolindophenol

C. 2:4 dinitrophenolhydrazine

D. 1,2,3-aminonaphthol sulphonic acid



18. In Quick’s prothrombin time method, reagents contains:

A. Thymol

B. Thromboplastin

C. Thyroglobulin

D. Thymopthelien



19. Reddish or brownish color of gastric juice sample indicates blood, confirm by:

A. Benedicts’s test

B. Folin-wu’s test

C. Benzidine test

D. Gerhardt’s test



20. A positive nitrate test in urine is indicative of:

A. diabetic ketosis

B. jaundice

C. bacterial infection

D. kidney stone




ObGynec: (20)
OBG - 20
1, 46 years old lady, heavy menstrual flow for 12 month, regular cycle (7-10 / 24-28), affect her daily activities Which of the following is the most appropriate management ?
A, Tranxamin
B, Progestrogen only pill
C, Estrogen
D, Copper IUCD
E, Hysterectomy

2, A 23 years old clerk is getting married in 2 week's time. One day after the wedding banquet, the couple will go for 5 days honeymoon, where they will be engaged in water sport. Her LMP was 2 weeks before, so she will have the next menstruation in between the wedding and honeymoon and she dislike the idea. So she would like to have your advice. She has good past health. The couple are not planning to have baby at presentation.
A, Start her on COC pill now.
B, Start COC at 1st day of next menstruation
C, Start Triphasic OC pill at 1st day of next menstruation
D, Reassure her and tell her that menstruation is physiological
E, Put in Progestogen containing IUCD

4, 40 years old woman complains 24 hr RLQ pain and nausea. LMP 6 wks ago, with subsequent irregular, frequent, scanty "menses". Examination show 6 wk size slightly irregular uterus. Left ovary : firm , non-tender. Right adnexal : no mass, extremely tender.
Which dx should be in your consideration ?
A, Acute appendicitis
B, Ectopic pregnancy.
C, Ovarian cyst torsion
D, All of above
E, None of above

5, 20 years old waitress insidious onset of Lower abdominal pain for 4 days, increase in severity, with nausea, also with yellowish vaginal discharge. Temp : 37.8 C. LMP was one week ago, she has many sexual partners and use male condom most of the time.
A, HVS for Trichomona, chlamydia + ECS for gonococcus. Blood for VDRL + HIV
B, HVS for Trichomona, gonococcus + ECS for chlamydia. Blood for VDRL + HIV
C, HVS for trichomona, chlamydia, gonococcus, CBC, ESR, WCC, HIV
D, …
E, HVS for trichomonas, ECS for chlamydia, gonococcus, Blood for HIV, WDRL

6, 33 years old woman, G2P2, complain of severe abdominal pain, esp 3 days before menses. Increase in severity lately. Bilateral cystic lesion seen in ovaries.
A, Recurrent PID
B, Pelvic Endometrisis
C, Tubo-ovarian abscess
D, Bilateral Hydrosalphinx
E, None of above.

7, A 49 years old lady presents with a mass protuding from vagina. Examination is done and reveals a 3' uterine prolapse. Which of the following would you expect to see most ?
A, Fundus remain inside the vagina
B, Enterocele protruding from vagina
C, Both anterior and posterior vaginal wall protruding from introtus
D, Anterior vagina protruding from introtus
E, None of above.

8, 63 years old obese lady, 3 months history of continous scanty vaginal bleeding. History and physical exam are normal. Pap smear result normal.
A, Hysterocopy and Endometrial Biopsy
B, Progestogen to stop PVB
C, Cone biopsy of cervix
D, See the patient in OPD every 6 month.
E, USG of pelvis.

9, 55 years old lady, Large red area of tissue in vaginal apex 4 wks after vaginal hysterectomy. Painless.
A, Prolapsed fallopian tube
B, Granulation tissue
C, Carcinoma
D, Pressure ulcer
E, Endometriosis

10, A 70 years old postmenopausal woman, make first visit to your clinic. She complains foul smelly vaginal discharge without other symptoms. Physical Exam reveals foul smelling vaginal discharge, 1 cm eroded lesion on left labia majora, red, swollen vagina, no other abnormalities
A, D&C
B, Cerivcal biopsy
C, Colposcopy
D, Biopsy of lesion
E, Wet mounted microscopy of vaginal discharge.

11, A 33 years old woman come to ur clinic at 16 wks of gestation. Previous pregnancy TOP at 20 wks because of cardiac anormaly. What your would do in this pregnancy ?
A, Maternal chromosome study
B, Aminocentesis
C, Triple test
D, Morphology scan
E, CVS

12, You are a medical officer in the labour wards. You are performing artifical rupture of membrane. After ROM, a portion of umbilical cord is present in the vagina. Which of the following is NOT appropriate treatment ?
A, Elevation of the presenting part vaginally
B, Put the patient in left lateral position
C, Put the patient in knee chest position.
D, Fill the bladder with 700 ml saline
E, Wrap the umbilical cord with warm towel.

13, 37 years old, 31 wk of gestation, 1st pregnancy. Booking BP: 130/90. Antenatal this time : 170/109. After 15 min, 150/100. The body weight increases 13 kg. Proteinuria 3+.
Edema at mid-craft. Asymptomatic.
A, Biochemical test + CTG, review 1 wk later
B, Biochemical test + review 1 wk later
C, Biochemical test + 24 hr urine creatine.
D, Biochemical test
E, Admit her to hospital + monitor + Investigation

14, A 32 years old pregnant lady , attend your Antenatal clinic, 12 wk pregrancy. A/N blood result show :
WCC 7.4 (4.0-10.8)
Hb 10.6 (9.5-14.3)
MCV 64
MCH 23
MCHC 27
What is the most appropriate investigation ?
A, Hb pattern + Serum Fe profile
B, Peripheral smear + Reticulocyte
C, Vit B12 + folate level
D, Hb pattern, Serum Fe profile, Vit B12, Folate level
E, Maternal Blood for thalassemia genes.

15, 37 wks of gestation, mulitparous, profuse PV bleeding after awake, lower abd pain, not labour pain experience before. Examination : os closed, 100 ml of blood in vagina.
Very frequent uterine contraction on CTG, reactive CTG.
A, Emergency CS
B, Close monitoring + NPO
C, Epidural + spontaneous delivery
D, consult ICU
E, None of above.

16, 30 wks, nulliparous, 3-4 regular uterine contraction. Cervical os close, 1 cm tubular. FHR normal. Forewater present.
A, Tocolytic + epidural
B, Tocolytic + iv antibiotics.
C, Tocolytic + ??
D, Tocolytic + corticosteriods
E, CS
(for 17-20) A 38 years old lady, History of DM for 4 years, on hypoglycemic drugs. Already had 3 daughters. She wants to get pregnant again.

17, Should advices her
A, change to insulin now
B, change to insulin when confirmed pregnant.
C, Instruct her not to get pregnant again due to advanced maternal age, multiparious and history of diabetics.
D, continue oral hypoglycemic if glucose level is good control.
E, None of above.
18, Which of the following statement is not correct ?
A, Advance maternal age is associated with Down's syndrome only.
B, Poor controlled diabetes is a risk factor for Down's syndrome
C, Biochemical screening test is a confirmatory test for Down's syndrome
D, All of above.
E, None of above.
19, Supposed she is pregant, gestation age :30 wk but fundal height height 34 cm.
A, Pre-eclampia
B, IUGR
C, Polyhydrominos
D, Abruptios placenta with retroplacental blood clot
E, Down's syndromes.
20, if she was pregant, poor control DM, spontaneous labour at term, good uterine contraction, but arrest at cervix 8cam for 4 hrs.
A, Syntocin
B, Ventrouse
C, Fetal CTG + assess 2hr later
D, CS
E, None of above.


PLEASE FEEL FREE IF YOU COULD POST THIS QUESTION ON USMLE NET TOO I COULDNT DO IT