Does anyone understand the concept behind it???
Does anyone understand the concept behind it???
Yes, the new collaterals formed to supply the rest of the areas take the blood that is supposed to go to the necrotic areas once the vasodilatation occurs.
Isnt that when you give nifedipine for HT and the patient can get an angina?
yes in the past it was use for angina, but it can also give a angina.
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why even bother with the obvious. Just know where you are need it and where you can help the most.
well, I understand that Nifedipine is mainly an arteriolar vasodilator, this drug has minimal effect on cardiac conduction or heart rate, but nevertheless the vasodilation effect of nifedipine is useful in the treatment of variant angina caused by spontaneous coronary spasm![]()
Ah, I know the steal syndrome well. It is the same concept behind a persantine stress test. If you have blockages in one or more of your coronary arteries, there is impedence of flow. That much is easy. Now, add a vasodilator which acts mostly on the arteries (nifedipine or persantine). The healthy vessels will dilate significantly, and the diseased/blocked arteries won't dilate much at all. So blood goes through the path of least resistance. Blood flow through the relatively healthy arteries increases, this "steals" blood away from the diseased arteries, and you actually get less flow to the tissue downstream. Does that make sense? G
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Thank you teratos
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why even bother with the obvious. Just know where you are need it and where you can help the most.
yes basically is that exactly the way I understand it, with the dipyridamol and the rest.......are we sharp here or what?![]()