A 48-year-old male presents for a routine evaluation 3 months after starting on an antihypertensive medication. His physical examination is unremarkable and blood pressure is 128/83. Laboratory results reveal the following lipid profile: total cholesterol 280 mg/dL, HDL 34 mg/dL, LDL 188 mg/dL, and triglycerides 191 mg/dL. His lipid profile was normal prior to beginning his antihypertensive medication. Which of following medications most likely caused the patient's dyslipidemia?
Good,Originally Posted by pharmacology
The correct answer is D. The question states that the patient began antihypertensive therapy 3 months earlier and now has elevated total cholesterol, LDL, and triglyceride levels, as well as a low HDL level. Therefore, there is a strong possibility that the antihypertensive medication caused the dyslipidemia. Metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that is known to cause dyslipidemias in patients. None of the other medications are associated with the development of dyslipidemias.
Benazepril (choice A), an ACE inhibitor, and diltiazem (choice B), a calcium-channel blocker, are both used to treat essential hypertension, and are not associated with the development of dyslipidemias.
Both guanfacine (choice C), a centrally acting alpha-2-receptor agonist, and prazosin (choice E), a peripherally acting alpha-1-receptor blocking agent, can be used to treat hypertension. However, due to their side-effect profiles, these agents are generally used in patients unresponsive to other antihypertensive therapies.
Could you please explain why beta-blockers indusce dislipiemia.