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asadxyz
05-21-2003, 11:30 PM
What is the reason Benzodiazepines given parentally in large doses cause respiration depression and death. But if the same dose is given orally does not cause death. V V V STrange.

RossMIA
05-22-2003, 04:30 AM
could be due to the first pass effect (hepatic metabolism after absorption from the portal circulation) when given orally

dua
05-22-2003, 08:54 AM
coud it be due to different bioavailabilities? PE will have 100% BA so more lethal but only a certain percent of the dose reaches systemic circulation when given orally and plus the first pass effect removes 99% of the drug ( seen only in oral dosage).. reason why lidocaine is given as IV since 99% of it is extracted by the liver and only a fraction would remain in systemic circulation when given orally thus not enough to produce any effect.

asadxyz
05-22-2003, 09:49 AM
Both of the explanations concerning 1st pass metaboism and difference in bioavailability are not correct . Pl reconsider and study again you will find the answer. this is a sort homework to both of you OKKKKKKKKKK.

Anonymous
05-22-2003, 10:15 AM
Benzodiazepines bind to a subset of the GABA receptor thus decreasing neuronal activity (just as the normal action of GABA) and decreasing brain function; if given parentally in addition to bypassing the first pass effect benz. are rapidly taken up in the brain eventually causing death.

asadxyz
05-22-2003, 10:28 AM
I give you a hint about the answer. If you know t he ceiling effect of the benzodiazepines , then you will be able to anwere this question.

Neuro4u
05-25-2003, 07:48 PM
Long half life and increased active metabolites.....effects the medulla.