Can2carib
08-03-2009, 11:02 AM
Hello,
Quick question..
In a lot of answers/discussions I come across, it says that usually homozygous dominant individuals die in utero. As a result, we omit them when do calculations i.e. what are the chances of a child acquiring the disease if both parents are carriers of the dominant allele (50%). However, in some cases children do survive if they acquire a homozygous dominant genotype...i.e. familial hypercholestrolemia.
I guess my question is are we to assume that a child dies in utero if homozygous dominant unless specified?
Quick question..
In a lot of answers/discussions I come across, it says that usually homozygous dominant individuals die in utero. As a result, we omit them when do calculations i.e. what are the chances of a child acquiring the disease if both parents are carriers of the dominant allele (50%). However, in some cases children do survive if they acquire a homozygous dominant genotype...i.e. familial hypercholestrolemia.
I guess my question is are we to assume that a child dies in utero if homozygous dominant unless specified?