mixed histo/anatomy/embryo
enjoy

Define anisocytosis.
varying cell sizes
Define poikilocytosis
varying cell shapes
From which cells do B cells arise?
stem cells in bone marrow
From which cells do plasma cells differentiate?
B cells
How can a Nissl stain be used to differentiate microglia from oligodendroglia?
Microglia are not discernable in a Nissl stain while oligodendroglia appear as small dark nuclei with dark chromatin
In what type of CNS tissue (white or grey) are oligodendroglia predominant?
white matter
Into what cell type does a monocyte differentiate in tissues?
Macrophages
Name 2 substances produced by an eosinophil.
histiminase and arylsulfatase
Name the three types of leukocytic granulocytes.
basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils
Name the two types of mononuclear leukocytes.
lymphocytes and monocytes
What are 2 functions of T cell lymphocytes?
- cellular immune response - regulation of B lymphocytes and macrophages
What are 2 morphological features of microglia?
- small irregular nuclei - and relatively little cytoplasm
What are 3 examples of peripheral lymphoid tissue?
- follicles of lymph nodes - white pulp of spleen - unencapsulated lymphoid tissue
What are 3 functions of a macrophage?
- pagocytosis of bacteria, cell debris, and senescent red cells - scavenges damaged cells and tissues - can function as an antigen presenting cell
What are 3 morphological characteristics of monocytes?
- Large - Kidney-shaped nucleus - Extensive 'frosted glass' cytoplasm
What are 4 characteristics of the plasma cell morphology?
- Off center nucleus - Clock face chromatin distribution - Abundant RER - Well developed Golgi apparatus
What are 4 morphologic characteristics of lymphocytes?
- Round - Small - Densely staining nucleus - Small amount of pale cytoplasm
What are 4 substances contained within the lysosomes of neutrophils?
- hydrolytic enzymes - lysozyme - myeloperoxidase - lactoferrin
What are 4 types of cells into which T cells differentiate?
- cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, CD8) - helper T cells (MHCII, CD4) - suppressor T cells - delayed hypersensitivity T cells
What are the 5 important causes for eosinophilia in humans?
Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic process, Collagen vascular disease, and Parasites (pneumonic NAACP)
What are the blood cell diffenentiation names of the ACTIVE T CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Lymphoblast - T cell - Active T cell
What are the blood cell differentiation names of the ERYTHROCYTE cell line beginning with pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Proerythroblast - Reticulocyte - Erythrocyte
What are the blood cell differentiation names of the MONOCYTE cell lines beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (3)
- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Mono blast - Monocyte
What are the blood cell differentiation names of the NEUTROPHIL, EOSINOPHIL, and BASOPHIL cell lines beginning with the myeloblast stage? (6)
- Myeloblast - Promyelocyte - Myelocyte - Metamyelocyte - Stab cell - Neutrophil, eosinophil or basophil
What are the blood cell differentiation names of the PLASMA CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Lymphoblast - B cell - Plasma cell
What are the blood cell differentiation names of the PLATELET CELL line beginning with the hematopoietic stem cell? (4)
- Pluripotento hematopoietic stem cell - Megakaryoblast - Megakaryocyte - Platelets
What are the components of the air-blood barrier?
- Type I pneumocyte - tight junction - endothelial cell
What are the steps of maturation of a B cell? (2 points)
- maturation in the marrow - migration to peripheral lymphoid tissue
What are the substances contained within the densly basophilic granules of the basophil? (4)
- Heparin (anticoagulant) - histamine (vasodilator) - vasoactive amines - Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis
What are two basic morphological characteristics of neutrophils?
- multilobed nucleus - large, spherical azurophilic primary granules (lysosomes)
What are two important functions of a neutrophil?
- acute inflammmatory response of a cell - phagocytosis
What are two names for an increased number of red cells?
Erythrocytosis and polycythemia
What cell type closely resembles a mast cell?
basophil
What cranial nerves are commonly involved in an acoustic neuroma?
CN VII, VIII (association with internal acoustic meatus)
What disease is characterized by destruction of oligodendroglia?
Multiple sclerosis
What does CD stand for?
cluster of differentiation
What drug prevents mast cell degranulation?
Cromolyn sodium
What immunoglobulin can bind to the membrane of a mast cell?
IgE
What is a reticulocyte?
a baby (developing) erythrocyte
What is an important example of a Schwannoma?
Acoustic neuroma
What is another name for pulmonary sufractant?
DPPC (dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine)
What is percentage of leukocytes in the blood exist as basophils?
less than 1%
What is the 'gap' between the myelination segment of 2 Schwann cells called?
Node of Ranvier
What is the advantage of the large surface area:volume ratio in erythrocytes?
easy gas exchange (Oxygen and Carbon dioxide)
What is the basic morphologic structure of an erythrocyte?
Anucleate, biconcave
What is the basic morphology of an eosinophil? (2 things)
- bilobate nucleus - packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size
What is the embryologic origin of microglia?
mesoderm
What is the function of Interferon gamma with relation to macrophages?
macrophage activation
What is the function of microglia?
phagocytosis in CNS
What is the function of oligodendroglia?
myelination of multiple CNS axons
What is the function of pulmonary surfactant?
lowers alveolar surface tension and prevents atelectasis
What is the function of Schwann cells?
myelination of PNS (a Schwann cell myelinates only one PNS axon)
What is the importance of the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio?
> 2.0 in fetal lung is indicative of fetal lung maturity
What is the importance of the physiologic chloride shift in erythrocytes?
Membranes contain the chloride bicarbonate antiport allowing the RBC to transport carbon dioxide from the the lung periphery for elimination.
What is the last segment of lung tissue in which ciliated cells are found?
respiratory bronchioles
What is the last segment of lung tissue in which goblet cells are found?
terminal broncioles (remember ciliated cells sweep away mucous produced by goblet cells and therefore run deeper)
What is the primary function of a basophil?
Mediates allergic reactions
What is the primary function of a leukocyte?
Defense against infections
What is the primary function of a mast cell?
Mediates allergic reactions
What is the primary function of a plasma cell?
production of large amounts of a specific antibody to a particular antigen
What is the primary source of energy for erythrocytes?
glucose (90% anaerobically degraded to lactate, 10% by HMP shunt)
What is the process of degranulation in mast cells?
release of histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors
What is the range of concentration for leukocytes in the blood?
4,000 - 10,000 cells per microliter
What is the response of an eosiniphil to antigen antibody complexes?
high degree of phagocytosis
What is the response of microglia to tissue dammage?
transformation into large ameboid phagocytic cells
What is the response to microglia infected with HIV?
fusion to form multinucleated giant cells in CNS
What is the survival time for an erythrocyte?
120 days
What pathognomonic change is seen in neutrophils of a person who is folate/vitamin B12 deficient?
hypersegmented polys
What percentage of leukocytes exist as eosinophils in the blood?
1 - 6%
What percentage of leukocytes exist as neutrophils in the blood?
40 - 75%
What percentage of leukocytes in blood are monocytes?
2 - 10%
What process occurs when type I pneumocytes are damaged?
Type II pneumocytes develop into type I
What substance in eosinophilic granules is primarily responsible for defense against helminths and protozoan infections?
major basic protein
Where is the site of maturation of T lymphocytes?
Thymus
Which cell type constituitively secretes pulmonary surfactant?
Type II pneumocyte
Which cell type lines the alveoli?
Type I pneumocyte
Which leukemia is the result of plasma cell neoplasm?
Multiple myeloma
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is a mast cell involved in?
Type I hypersensitivity reaction
Which type of immunity do B cells exhibit?
humoral immunity
After arising from the floor of the primitive pharynx, where does the thryoid diverticulum go?
It descends down into the neck
After the first breath at birth, what causes closure of the ductus arteriosus?
An increase in oxygen
After the first breath at birth, what causes the closure of the foramen ovale?
A decrease resistance in pulmonary vasculature causes increased left atrial pressure vs. right atrial pressure
Although the diaphragm descends during development, it maintains innervation from ____?
C3-C5
An easy pneumonic to remember fetal erythropoiesis is?
Young Liver Synthesizes Blood
At what time in the course of development is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?
Weeks 3-8
Deoxygenated blood from the SVC is expelled into the pulmonary artery and ____ ____ to the lower body of the fetus.
ductus arteriosus
Do the cardiovascular structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Do the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Do the enterochromaffin cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Do the lungs arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Endoderm
Do the lymphatics arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Do the melanocytes arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Do the neural crest cells arise from mesoderm, ectoderm, or endoderm?
Ectoderm
Do the odontoblasts arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Do the parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Do the Schwann cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Do the urogenital structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Does blood arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Does bone arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Does muscle arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Does the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Endoderm
Does the adrenal cortex arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Does the ANS arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Does the celiac ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Does the dorsal root ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Does the dura connective tissue arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Does the gut tube epithelium arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Endoderm
Does the liver arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Endoderm
Does the pancreas arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Endoderm
Does the parathyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Endoderm
Does the pia arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
Does the serous linings of body cavities arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Does the spleen arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Mesoderm
Does the thymus arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
Endoderm
From what does the ligamentum teres hepatis arise?
Umbilical vein
How does a bicornate uterus form?
Results from incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts
How does a cleft lip form?
Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes
How does a cleft palate form?
Failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum, and/or the median palatine process
How does a horseshoe kidney form?
Inferior poles of both kidneys fuse, as they ascend from the pelvis during development they get trapped under the inferior mesenteric artery, and remain low in the abdomen
How is meckel's diverticulum different than an omphalomesenteric cyst?
Omphalomesenteric cyst is a cystic dilatation of the vitelline duct
How long does full development of spermatogenesis take?
2 months
How many arteries and veins does the umbilical cord contain?
- 2 umbilical arteries (carries deoxygenated blood away from fetus) - 1 umbilical vein (oxygenated blood to fetus)
Is a primary spermatocyte 2N or 4N?
4N
Is a primary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?
Diploid, 4N
Is a secondary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?
Haploid, 2N
Is a secondary spermatocyte N or 2N?
2N
Is a speratogonium haploid or diploid?
Diploid, 2N
Is a spermatid haploid or diploid?
Haploid, N
Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until ovulation?
Prophase
Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization?
Metaphase (an egg MET a sperm)
Most oxygenated blood reaching the heart via IVC is diverted through the ____ ____ and pumped out the aorta to the head.
foramen ovale
The right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein give rise to what adult heart structure?
Superior vena cava
The stapedius muscle of the ear is formed by which branchial arch?
2nd
This type of bone formation consists of ossification of cartilaginous molds and forms long bones at primary and secondary centers.
Endochondral
True or False, blood in the umbilical vein is 100% saturated with oxygen?
False, it is 80% saturated
True or False, there are two types of spermatogonia?
True, type A & type B
What are the 1st branchial arch derivatives innervated by?
CN V2 and V3
What are the 2nd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?
CN VII
What are the 3rd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?
CN IX
What are the 4th and 6th branchial arch derivatives innervated by?
CN X
What are the cartilage derivatives (5) of the 4th and 6th branchial arches?
- Thyroid - Cricoid - Arytenoids - Corniculate - Cuneiform
What are the five 2's associated with meckel's diverticulum?
- 2 inches long - 2 feet from the ileocecal valve - 2% of the population - Commonly presents in the first 2 years of life - May have 2 types of epithelia
What are the rule of 2's for the 2nd week of development?
- 2 germ layers: epiblast & hypoblast - 2 cavities: amniotic cavity & yolk sac - 2 components to the placenta: cytotrophoblast & syncytiotrophoblast
What are the rule of 3's for the 3rd week of development?
3 germ layers (gastrula): ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
What can a persistent cervical sinus lead to?
A branchial cyst in the neck
What can be found in the cortex of the thymus?
It is dense with immature T cells
What can be found in the medulla of the thymus?
It is pale with mature T cells, epithelial reticular cells, and Hassall's corpuscles
What connects the thyroid diverticulum to the tongue?
The thyroglossal duct
What devlopmental contributions does the 5th branchial arch make?
None
What do the 2nd - 4th branchial clefts form, which are obliterated by proliferation of the 2nd arch mesenchyme?
Temporary cervical sinuses
What does aberrant development of the 3rd and 4th pouches cause?
DiGeorge's syndrome
What does the 1st aortic arch give rise to?
Part of the maxillary artery
What does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch develop into?
Epithelial lining of the palantine tonsils
What does the 3rd aortic arch give rise to?
Common carotid artery and proximal part of the internal carotid artery
What does the 4th pharyngeal pouch develop into?
Superior parathyroids
What does the 5th aortic arch give rise to?
Nothing
What does the 5th pharyngeal pouch develop into?
C cells of the thyroid
What does the 6th aortic arch give rise to?
The proximal part of the pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriosus
What does the ductus arteriosus give rise to?
Ligamentum arteriosum
What does the ductus venosus shunt blood away from?
Liver
What does the first branchial cleft develop into?
The external auditory meatus
What does the foramen ovale give rise to?
Fossa ovalis
What does the left 4th aortic arch give rise to?
Aortic arch
What does the ligamentum venosum come from?
Ductus venosus
What does the notochord give rise to?
Nucleus Pulposus
What does the primitive atria give rise to?
Trabeculated left and right atrium
What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?
Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle
What does the right 4th aortic arch give rise to?
Proximal part of the right subclavian artery
What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?
Smooth part of the right atrium
What does the spleen arise from?
Dorsal mesentery, but is supplied by the artery of the foregut
What does the thymus arise from?
Epithelium of the 3rd branchial pouch
What does the thyroid diverticulum arise from?
The floor of the primitive pharynx
What does the truncus arteriosus give rise to?
The ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
What does the umbilical arteries give rise to?
Medial umbilical ligaments
What ear muscle does the 1st branchial arch form?
Tensor tympani
What effect does 13-cis-retinoic acid have on the fetus?
Extremely high risk for birth defects
What effect does ACE inhibitors have on the fetus?
Renal Damage
What effect does iodide have on the fetus?
Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
What effect does warfarin and x-rays have on the fetus?
Multiple anomalies
What effects does cocaine have on the fetus?
Abnormal fetal development and fetal addiction
What embryonic structure are the smooth parts of the left and right ventricle derived from?
Bulbus cordis
What embryonic structure does the coronary sinus come from?
Left horn of the sinus venosus
What embryonic structure does the median umbilical ligament come from?
Allantois (urachus)
What fetal landmark has developed within week 2 of fertilization?
Bilaminar disk
What fetal landmark has occurred within week 1 of fertilization?
Implantation
What fetal landmark has occurred within week 3 of fertilization?
Gastrulation
What fetal landmarks (2) have developed within week 3 of fertilization?
Primitive streak and neural plate begin to form
What five things arise from neuroectoderm?
- Neurohypophysis - CNS neurons - Oligodendrocytes - Astrocytes - Pineal gland
What four structures make up the diaphragm?
- Septum transversum - pleuroperitoneal folds - body wall - dorsal mesentery of esophagus
What four things arise from surface ectoderm?
- Adenohypophysis - Lens of eye - Epithelial linings - Epidermis
What four things does Meckel's cartilage (from the 1st arch) develop into?
- Mandible - Malleus - Incus - Sphenomandibular ligament
What four things does Reichert's cartilage (from the 2nd arch) develop into?
- Stapes - Styloid process - Lesser horn of hyoid - Stylohyoid ligament
What four things does the dorsal pancreatic bud become?
Body, tail, isthmus, and accessory pancreatic duct
What four things does the mesonephric (wolffian) duct develop into?
- Seminal vesicles - Epididymis - Ejaculatory duct - Ductus deferens
What induces the ectoderm to form the neuroectoderm (neural plate)?
Notochord
What is a hiatal hernia?
Abdominal contents herniate into the thorax due to incomplete development of the diaphragm
What is a hypospadias?
Abnormal opening of penile urethra on inferior side of penis due to failure of urethral folds to close
What is a single umbilical artery associated with?
Congenital and chromosomal anomalies
What is a urachal cyst or sinus a remnant of?
The allantois
What is an abnormal opening of penile urethra on superior side of penis due to faulty positioning of the genital tubercle?
Epispadias
What is associated with an epispadias?
Exstrophy of the bladder
What is Meckel's diverticulum?
Persistence of the vitelline duct or yolk sac
What is oligohydramnios associated with?
Bilateral renal agenesis or posterior urethral valves (in males)
What is oligohydramnios?
< 0.5 L of amniotic fluid
What is polyhydramnios associated with?
Esophageal/duodenal atresia, anencephaly
What is polyhydramnios?
> 1.5-2 L of amniotic fluid
What is Potter's syndrome?
Bilateral renal agenesis, that results in ologohydramnios causing limb and facial deformities and pulmonary hypoplasia (Babies with Potter's can’t pee in utero)
What is the acrosome of sperm derived from?
Golgi apparatus
What is the female homologue to the corpus spongiosum in the male?
Vestibular bulbs
What is the female homologue to the prostate gland in the male?
Urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene)
What is the female homologue to the scrotum in the male?
Labia majora
What is the female homologue to the ventral shaft of the penis in the male?
Labia minora
What is the flagellum (tail) derived from?
One of the centrioles
What is the food supply of sperm?
Fructose
What is the male homologue to the glans clitoris in the female?
Glans penis
What is the male homologue to the greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin) in the female?
Bulbourethral glands (of Cowper)
What is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract?
Meckel's diverticulum
What is the most common ectopic thyroid tissue site?
The tongue
What is the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?
Foramen cecum
What is the postnatal derivative of the notochord?
The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc
What is the site of T-cell maturation?
Thymus
What part of the gut is the pancreas derived?
Foregut
What suppresses the development of the paramesonephric ducts in males?
Mullerian inhibiting substance (secreted by the testes)
What teratogenic agent causes limb defects ('flipper' limbs)?
Thalidomide
What three structures does the 3rd pharyngeal pouch develop into?
- Thymus - Left inferior parathyroid - Right inferior parathyroid
What three things does the 1st pharyngeal pouch develop into?
- Middle ear cavity - Eustachian tube - Mastoid air cells
What three things does the paramesonephric (mullerian) duct develop into?
- Fallopian tube - Uterus - Part of the vagina
What three things does the ventral pancreatic bud become?
- Pancreatic head - uncinate process - main pancreatic duct
What two things occur during week 4 of fetal development?
Heart begins to beat, upper and lower limb buds begin to form
What type of bone formation is spontaneous without preexisting cartilage?
Intramembranous
What type of twins would have 1 placenta, 2 amniotic sacs, and 1 chorion?
Monozygotic twins
What type of twins would have 2 amniotic sacs and 2 placentas?
Monozygotic or dizygotic twins
What will DiGeorge's syndrome lead to?
T cell deficiency & hypocalcemia
When do primary oocytes begin meiosis I?
During fetal life
When do primary oocytes complete meiosis I?
Just prior to ovulation
When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the bone marrow?
Week 28 and onward
When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the liver?
Weeks 6-30
When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the spleen?
Weeks 9-28
When does organogenesis occur in the fetus?
Weeks 3-8
Where does positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
At the corticomedullary junction
Where does spermatogenesis take place?
Seminferous tubules
Where is the first place fetal erythropoiesis occurs and when does this take place?
Yolk sac (3-8 wk)
Which aortic arch does the stapedial artery and the hyoid artery come from?
2nd aortic arch
Which branchial arch are the greater horn of hyoid and the stylopharyngeus muscle derived from?
3rd branchial arch
Which branchial arch does Meckel's cartilage develop from?
1st arch
Which branchial arch forms the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
1st arch
Which branchial arch forms the incus and malleus of the ear?
1st arch
Which ear bone(s) does the 2nd branchial arch form?
Stapes
Which embryonic tissue are branchial clefts derived from?
Ectoderm
Which embryonic tissue are branchial pouches derived from?
Endoderm
Which is more common a hypospadias or epispadias?
Hypospadias
Which muscles (3) are derivatives of the 4th branchial arch?
- Most pharyngeal constrictors - Cricothyroid - Levator veli palatini
Which muscles (4) are derivatives of the 2nd branchial arch?
- Muscles of facial expression - Stapedius - Stylohyoid - Posterior belly of digastric
Which muscles (8) are derivatives of the 1st branchial arch?
- Temporalis - Masseter - Lateral pterygoid - Medial pterygoid - Mylohyoid - Anterior belly of digastric - Tensor tympani - Tensor veli palatini
Which muscles are derivatives of the 6th branchial arch?
All intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid
Which pharyngeal arch does Reichert's cartilage develop from?
2nd arch
Which teratogenic agent causes vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma?
DES
Which two branchial arches form the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
3rd and 4th arches
Which two embryonic tissues are branchial arches derived from?
Mesoderm and neural crests
Which week of fetal development have the genitalia taken on male/female characteristics?
Week 10
A common football injury caused by clipping from the lateral side will damage what structures (3 answers)?
--Medial collateral ligament --Medial meniscus --Anterior cruciate ligament
A lumbar puncture is performed at what landmark/
Iliac crest
A positive anterior drawer sign indicates damage to what structure?
Anterior cruciate ligament(ACL)
A pudendal nerve block is performed at what landmark?
Ischial spine
Abnormal passive abduction of the knee indicates damage to what structure?
Medial collateral ligament(MCL)
Anterior' in ACL refers to what attachment?
Tibial
At what level is a lumbar puncture performed?
Between L3-L4 or L4-L5
Common peroneal nerve damage manifests what deficit?
Loss of dorsiflexion(Foot Drop)
Common peroneal, Tibial, Femoral, and Obturator nerves arise from what spinal cord segments (4 answers)?
--'L4-S2 (common peroneal) --L4-S3 (tibial) --L2-L4 (femoral) and (obturator)
Coronary artery occlusion usually occurs where?
Left anterior descending artery (LAD)
Do the coronary arteries fill during systole or diastole?
Diastole
Erection and sensation of the penis is in what dermatomes?
S2-S4
Femoral nerve damage manifests what deficit?
Loss of knee jerk
How does the course of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve differ from that of the right?
The left wraps around the arch of the aorta and the ligamentum arteriosum while the right wraps around the subclavian artery.
How is the appendix located?
2/3 of the way from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine
How many lobes are in the right and left lungs and what are their names?
--Right has three (superior,middle,inferior) --Left has two (superior and inferior) and the lingula
Name five portal-systemic anastomoses.
1.Left gastric-azygous vv. 2.Superior-Middle/Inferior rectal vv. 3.Paraumbilical-inferior epigastric 4.Retroperitoneal-renal vv. 5.Retroperitoneal-paravertebral vv.
Name the 4 ligaments of the uterus.
--Suspensory ligament of ovaries --Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament --Round ligament of uterus --Broad ligament
Name the hypothenar muscles.
--Opponens digiti minimi --Abductor digiti minimi --Flexor digiti minimi
Name the retroperitoneal structures (9).
1.Duodenum(2nd-4th parts) 2.Descending colon 3.Ascending colon 4.Kidney & ureters 5.Pancreas 6.Aorta 7.Inferior vena cava 8.Adrenal glands 9.Rectum
Name the rotator cuff muscles.
--Supraspinatus --Infraspinatus --teres minor --Subscapularis
Name the thenar muscles
--Opponens pollicis --Abductor pollicis brevis --Flexor pollicis brevis
Obturator nerve damage manifests what deficit?
Loss of hip adduction
Pain from the diaphragm is usually referred where?
Shoulder
Subarachnoid space extends to what spinal level?
S2
The area of the body that contains the appendix is known as what?
McBurney's point
The femoral triangle contains what structures from lateral to medial?
--Femoral nerve --Femoral artery --Femoral vein --Femoral Canal (lymphatics)
The inguinal ligament exists in what dermatome?
L1
The kneecaps exist in what dermatome?
L4
The male sexual response of ejaculation is mediated by what part of the nervous system?
Visceral and somatic nerves
The male sexual response of emission is mediated by what part of the nervous system?
Sympathetic nervous system
The male sexual response of erection is mediated by what part of the nervous system?
Parasympathetic nervous system
The nipple exists in what dermatome?
T4
The recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from what cranial nerve and supplies what muscles?
1.CN X 2.All intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle.
The SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by what artery?
Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
The spinal cord ends at what level in adults?
L1-L2
The umbilicus exists in what dermatome?
T10
The xiphoid process exists in what dermatome?
T7
Tibial nerve damage manifests what deficit?
Loss of plantar flexion
What are hernias?
Protrusions of peritoneum through an opening, usually sites of weakness.
What are JG cells?
Modified smooth muscle of afferent arteriole in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney
What are the boundaries of the inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle?
--Inferior epigastric artery --Lateral border of the rectus abdominus --Inguinal ligament
What are the layers encountered from the outsided down to the brain?
--Skin --Connective tissue --Aponeurosis --Loose connective tissue --Pericranium --Dura mater --Subdural space --Arachnoid --Subarachnoid space --Pia mater --Brain
What are the manifestations of portal hypertension?
--Esophageal varices --Hemorrhoids --Caput medusae
What condition is usually associated with portal hypertension?
Alcoholic cirrhosis
What defect may predispose an infant for a diaphragmatic hernia?
Defective development of the pleuroperitoneal membrane
What gut regions and structures does the celiac artery supply?
1.Foregut 2.--Stomach to duodenum --liver --gallbladder --pancreas
What gut regions and structures does the IMA supply?
1.Hindgut 2.--Distal 1/3 of transverse colon to upper portion of rectum
What gut regions and structures does the SMA supply?
1.Midgut 2.--Duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon
What is a diaphragmatic hernia?
Abdominal retroperitoneal structures enter the thorax
What is a femoral hernia?
entrance of abdominal contents through the femoral canal.
What is a hiatal hernia?
Stomach contents herniate upward through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm
What is the arterial blood supply difference above and below the pectinate line?
--Superior rectal a. (Above) --Inferior rectal a. (Below)
What is the course of a direct inguinal hernia?
Through weak abdominal wall, into the inguinal triangle, medial to the inferior epigastric artery, through the external inguinal ring only.
What is the course of an indirect inguinal hernia?
Through the internal (deep) inguinal ring and the external (superficial) inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and into the scrotum
What is the course of the ureters?
Pass under uterine artery and under the ductus deferens
What is the function of Myenteric plexus? Submucosal plexus?
1.Coordinates motility along entire gut wall 2.Regulates local secretions, blood flow, and absorption
What is the function of the JG cells?
--secrete renin and erythropoietin
What is the innervation difference above and below the pectinate line?
--Visceral innervation (Above) --Somatic innervation (Below)
What is the innervation of the diaphram?
Phrenic nerve (C3,4,5)
What is the macula densa?
Sodium sensor in part of the distal convoluted distal tubule in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney
What is the Myenteric plexus also known as? Submucosal plexus?
1. Auerbach's plexus 2. Meissner's plexus
What is the pectinate line of the rectum?
Where the hindgut meets ectoderm in the rectum
What is the relationship of the two pulmonary arteries in the lung hilus?
Right anterior Left superior
What is the usual pathology above the pectinate line of the rectum?
Internal hemorrhoids (not painful) Adenocarcinoma
What is the usual pathology below the pectinate line of the rectum?
External hemorrhoids (painful) Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the venous drainage difference above and below the pectinate line?
--Superior rectal v. to IMV to portal system (Above) --Inferior rectal v. to internal pudendal v. to internal iliac v. to IVC (Below)
What layers of the gut wall contribute to motility (4)?
--Muscularis mucosae --Inner circular muscle layer --Myenteric plexus --Outer longitudinal muscle layer
What layers of the gut wall contribute to support (3)?
--Serosa --Lamina propria --Submucosa
What muscle opens the jaw?
Lateral pterygoid
What nerve innervates most of the 'glossus' muscles and which is the exception?
1.Vagus Nerve (CNX) 2.Palatoglossus (innervated by hypoglossal n.)
What nerve innervates most of the 'palat' muscles and which is the exception?
1.Trigeminal Nerve, Mandibular branch 2.Tensor veli palatini (innervated by vagus n)
What nerve innervates the muscles that close and open the jaw?
Trigeminal Nerve (V3)
What neurons do the GI enteric plexus contain?
Cell bodies of parasympathetic terminal effector neurons
What part of the heart does the LAD supply?
anterior interventricular septum
What spinal cord levels are vertebral disk herniation most likely to occur?
Between L5 and S1
What structure is in the femoral triangle but not in the femoral sheath?
--Femoral nerve
What structures are in the carotid sheath?
1.Internal Jugular Vein (lateral) --2.Common Carotid Artery (medial) --3.Vagus Nerve (posterior)
What structures are pierced when doing an LP?
1.Skin/superficial fascia 2.Ligaments(supraspinatous,interspinous,ligamentum flavum) 3.Epidural space 4.Dura mater 5.Subdural space 6.Arachnoid 7.Subarachnoid space--CSF
What structures do the broad ligament contain (4)?
--Round ligaments of the uterus --Ovaries --Uterine tubules --Uterine vessels
What structures make up the bronchopulmonary segment?
--Tertiary bronchus --Bronchial artery --Pulmonary artery
What structures perforate the diaphragm at what vertebral levels?
--IVC at T8 --esophagus, vagal trunks at T10 --aorta, thoracic duct, axygous vein at T12
What three muscles close the jaw?
--Masseter --Temporalis --Medial pterygoid
What usually provides the blood supply for the inferior left ventricle?
Posterior descending artery (PD) of the RCA
When do the JG cells secrete renin?
in response to decreased renal BP, decreased sodium delivery to distal tubule, and increased sympathetic tone
When is damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve most likely to happen and what are its results(2 answers)?
1.Thyroid surgery 2.Hoarseness
Where is the CSF found?
Subarachnoid space
Where is the Myenteric plexus located? Submucosal plexus?
1.Between the inner and outer layers of smooth muscle in GI tract wall 2.Between mucosa and inner layer of smooth muscle in GI tract wall.
Which ligament contains the ovarian vessels?
Suspensory ligament of the ovary
Which ligament contains the uterine vessels?
Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament
Which lung is the usual site of an inhaled foreign body?
Right lung
Which lung provides a space for the heart to occupy?
Left lung (in the place of the middle lobe)
Which meningeal layer is not pierced during an LP?
Pia mater
Who usually gets a direct inguinal hernia? indirect hernia (and why)?
1.Older men 2.Infants (failure of processus vaginalis to close)
What are the 3 layers of peripheral nerves? (inner to outer)
1) Endoneurium 2) Perineurium 3) Epineurium
Where is type I collagen found?(7)
1. bone 2. tendon 3. skin 4. dentin 5. fascia 6. cornea 7. late wound repair
Where is type II collagen found? (3)
1. cartilage (including hyaline) 2. vitreous body 3. nucleus pulposus.
What are the functions of the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?
1. Cochlea- hearing 2. vestibule- linear acceleration 3. semicircular canals- angular acceleration.
What are the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?
1. Cochlea 2. vestibule 3. semicircular canals
What are the major structures of the inner ear membranous labyrinth?
1. Cochlear duct 2. utricle. 3. saccule 4. semicircular canals.
Name two proteins involved in the structure of macula adherens.
1. Desmoplakin 2.Keratin
Name 6 functions of Golgi apparatus.
1. Distribution center of proteins and lipids from ER to plasma membrane, lysosomes, secretory vessicles 2. Modifies N-oligosaccharides on asparagine 3. Adds O-oligosaccharides to Ser and Thr residues 4. Proteoglycan assembly from proteoglycan core proteins 5. Sulfation of sugars in proteoglycans and of selected tyrosine on proteins
Name 6 functions of Golgi apparatus (continued answer)
6. Addition of mannose-6-phosphate to specific lysosomal proteins, which targets the protein to the lysosome
Name two proteins involved in the structure of zona adherens?
1. E-cadherins 2. actin filaments
Which cells are rich in smooth ER?
1. liver hepatocytes, 2. steroid hormone-producing cells of adrenal cortex.
Describe the immune response stimulated via Peyer's patches.
1. M cells take up antigen. 2. stimulated B cells leave Peyer's patch and travel through lymph and blood to lamina propria of intestine. 3. In lamina propria B cells differentiate into IgA-secreting plasma cells. 4. IgA receives protective secretory component. 5. IgA is transported across epithelium to gut to deal with intraluminal Ag.
Which cells are rich in rough ER?
1. Mucus-secreting goblet cells of small intestine, 2. antibody-secreting plasma cells.
What are the functions of the lymph node?
1. Nonspecific filtration by macrophages. 2. storage/proliferation of B and T cells 3. Ab production.
Where is type III collagen found? (5)
1. skin 2.blood vessels 3.uterus 4.fetal tissue 5.granulation tissue
Name five types of epithelial cell junctions.
1. zona occludens 2.zona adherens 3.macula adherens 4.gap junction 5.hemidesmosome
Describe microtubule arrangement of cilia.
9+2 arrangement of microtubules.
Describe the outer structure of a Peyer's patch.
A Peyer's patch is 'covered' by single layer of cuboidal enterocytes, interspersed with specialized M cells (no goblet cells).
What is a lymph node? Include information on structural components.
A secondary lymphoid organ. Has many afferents, one or more efferents. With trabeculae. Major histological regions = Follicle, Medulla, Paracortex
What is the primary regulatory control of zona fasciculata secretion?
ACTH, hypothalamic CRH
What is the primary regulatory control of zona reticularis secretion?
ACTH, hypothalamic CRH
What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona glomerulosa?
aldosterone
What do Brunner's glands secrete?
alkaline mucus
What is the function of liver sinusoids?
Allow macromolecules of plasma full access to surface of liver cells through space of Disse.
What is the function of a gap junction?
Allows adjacent cells to communicate for electric and metabolic functions.
What is produced by alpha cells of the Islets of Langerhans?
alpha cells produce glucagon
What three cell types are found in Islets of Langerhans?
alpha, beta, and gamma cells
What type of cells are Nissl bodies found? In what parts of the cell?
Are found in neurons. Are not found in axon or axon hillock.
IN what area of the spleen are B cells found?
B cells are found within the white pulp of the spleen.
What is type IV collagen found? (1)
basement membrane or basal lamina
What is produced by beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans?
beta cells produce insulin
What is the only GI submucosal gland?
Brunner's glands
Describe the histological layers of the adrenal glands (outside to in)
Capsule, Zona glomerulosa, Zona fasciculata, Zona reticularis, Medulla.
What are/is the primary secretory product of the adrenal medulla?
Catecholamines (Epi, NE)
Memo to you.
Check out the picture in the book.
Memo to you.
Check out the picture in the book. p. 105
What do the medullary cords consist of?
Closely packed lymphocytes and plasma cells.
What is the most common type of collagen?
Collagen Type I - 90%
What is the most abundant protein in the human body?
Collagen.
Define Islets of Langerhans.
Collections of endocrine cells.
What is the function of hemidesmosomes?
Connect cells to underlying extracellular matrix.
What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona fasciculata?
cortisol, sex hormones.
What is another name for macula adherens?
Desmosome
What is the effect of duodenal ulcers on Brunner's gland histology?
Duodenal ulcers cause hypertrophy of Brunner's glands.
How does dynein function in cilia function?
Dynein causes the bending of cilium by differential sliding of doublets.
What kind of protein is dynein?
Dynein is an ATPase.
Describe the role of dynein in cilia structure.
Dynein links peripheral 9 doublets of microtubules.
What makes endolymph?
Endolymph is made by the stria vascularis.
What is Endoneurium?
Endoneurium invests single nerve fiber of the peripheral nerve.
What is Epineurium?
Epineurium (dense connective tissue) surrounds entire never (fascicles and blood vessels)
What is type X collagen found? (1)
epiphyseal plate
Plasma is filtered on the basis of what properties?
Filtration of plasma occurs according to net charge and size.
How is the glomerular basement membrane formed?
From the fusion of endothelial and podocyte basement membranes.
What is produced by gamma cells of the Islets of Langerhans?
gamma cells produce somatostatin.
What is the mnemonic to remember layers and products of adrenal cortex?
GFR (Glomerulosa, Fasciculata, Reticularis) corresponds to Salt (Na+), Sugar (glucocorticoids) and Sex (androgens) The deeper you go, the sweeter it gets.
What is the function of hair cells?
Hair cells are the sensory elements in both the cochlear and vestibular apparatus.
Name a protein involved in the structure of hemidesmosomes.
Integrin.
What is another name for zona adherens?
Intermediate junction.
Describe the histological structure of sinusoids of the liver.
Irregular 'capillaries' with round pores 100-200 nm in diameter and no basement membrane.
What is the function of smooth ER?
Is the site of steroid synthesis and detoxification of drugs and poisons
What is the function of rough ER?
Is the site of synthesis of secretory (exported proteins and of N-linked oligosaccharide addition to many proteins.
What part of pancreas are the Islets of Langerhans concentrated?
Islets of Langerhans are most numerous in the tail of pancreas.
What structural defect causes Kartagener's syndrome? What is the consequence?
Kartagener's syndrome is due to dynein arm defect. Results in immotile cilia.
Define Pacinian corpuscles.
Large, encapsulated sensory receptors found in deeper layers of skin at ligaments, joint capsules, serous membranes, mesenteries.
Where are Brunner's glands located?
Located in submucosa of duodenum
Describe the histologic structure of sinusoids of the spleen.
Long, vascular channels in red pulp. With fenestrated 'barrel hoop' basement membrane.
What is the histologic change in lymph nodes during an extreme cellular immune response?
Lymph node paracortex becomes enlarged during extreme cellular immune response.
What is the histologic presentation of DiGeorge's syndrome?
Lymph node paracortex is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge's syndrome.
What kind of cells are found nearby the sinusoids of the spleen?
Macrophages
What are the major structures of the lymph node medulla?
Medulla consists of medullary cords and medullary sinuses.
What do medullary sinuses communicate with?
Medullary sinuses communicate with efferent lymphatics.
What do medullary sinuses consist of?
Medullary sinuses contain reticular cells and macrophages.
What is the function of Meissner's corpuscles?
Meissner's corpuscles are involved in light discriminatory touch of glabrous skin.
What is the histologic change in nephrotic syndrome? What is the consequence of this change?
Negative charge is lost. Plasma protein is lost in urine
What is the glomerular basement membrane coated with? (provides negative charge to filter).
Negatively charged heparan sulfate.
What is the most common tumor the adrenal medulla in children?
Neuroblastoma
What is the function of Pacinian corpuscles?
Pacinian corpuscles are involved in pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension.
What do the Islets of Langerhans arise from?
Pancreatic buds.
What specialized vascular structure is found in the lymph node paracortex? What is the function of this structure?
Paracortex contains high endothelial venules (HEV). T and B cells enter from the blood through the HEV.
What cells are found in the lymph node paracortex?
Paracortex houses T cells.
What is Perineurium?
Perineurium (permeability barrier) surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers.
What is the most common tumor the adrenal medulla in adults?
Pheochromocytoma
Compare the consequences of pheochromocytoma vs. neuroblastoma on blood pressure
Pheochromocytoma causes episodic hypertension Neuroblastoma does NOT cause episodic hypertension
What is the space of Disse?
Pores in liver sinusoids allowing plasma macromolecules access to liver cell surfaces.
What is the primary regulatory control of adrenal medulla secretion?
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
What is the function of zona occludens?
Prevents diffusion across intracellular space.
Describe the appearance and status of primary vs. secondary follicles.
Primary follicles are dense and dormant. Secondary follicles have pale central germinal centers and are active.
Describe the location of the lymph node paracortex.
Region of cortex between follicles and medulla.
What is the primary regulatory control of zona glomerulosa secretion?
Renin-angiotensin
What is the glomerular basement membrane responsible for?
Responsible for the actual filtration of plasma.
What is another name for type III collagen?
reticulin
What are Nissl bodies?
rough ER
Where in the inner ear are the ampullae found? What is the function of this structure?
Semicircular canals contain ampullae Functions in detecting angular acceleration.
What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona reticularis?
sex hormones (e.g. androgens)
What is the function of lymph node follicles?
Site of B-cell localization and proliferation.
Define macula adherens.
Small, discrete sites of attachment of epithelial cells.
Define Meissner's corpuscles.
Small, encapsulated sensory receptors found in dermis of palm, soles and digits of skin.
What is an M cell? What is it's function.
Specialized cell interspersed between the cuboidal enterocytes covering a Peyer's patch. M cells take up antigens.
Name the layers of epidermis from surface to base.
stratum Corneum, stratum Lucidum, stratum Granulosum, stratum Spinosum, stratum Basalis.
What is the location of zona adherens?
Surrounds the perimeter just below zona occludens.
What is the function of Nissl bodies?
Synthesize enzymes (e.g. ChAT) and peptide neurotransmitters.
In what area of the spleen are T cells found?
T cells are found in the PALS and the red pulp of the spleen.
Which part of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound? Which picks up low frequency?
The base of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound the apex picks up low frequency sound
What is the bony labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.
The bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph. Perilymph is Na+ rich, similar to ECF
What is the cause of I cell disease? What is the consequence?
The failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome proteins. These enzymes are secreted outside the cell instead of being targeted to the lysosome.
What is the membranous labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.
The membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. Endolymph is K+ rich, similar to ICF.
What layer of the peripheral nerve must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment?
The perineurium must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment.
Where in the inner ear are the maculae found? What is the function of this structure?
The utricle and saccule contain maculae Functions in detecting linear acceleration.

How is the function of gap junctions accomplished?
Through a connection with central channels.
What is another name for zona occludens?
Tight junction.
What are mnemonics for remembering locations for type I, II and IV collagen?
Type ONE: bONE Type TWO: carTWOlage Type FOUR: under the FLOOR (basement membrane)
What is a Peyer's patch?
Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine.
What type of infection may induce an extreme cellular immune response? What happens to the lymph node during such an immune response?
Viral response is an example. The paracortex enlarges.
According to the Homunculus man, place the following in order (from medial to lateral). hand, foot, tongue, face, trunk
foot, trunk, hand, face, tongue
(T or F) Can Bell's palsy occur idiopathically?
true
(T or F) Can fasiculations be present in a LMN lesion?
True
(T or F) Is the anterior nucleus of the thalamus part of the limbic system?
True
(T or F) Is the cingulate gyrus part of the limbic system?
True
(T or F) Is the Entrorhinal cortex part of the limbic system?
True
(T or F) Is the hippocampal formation part of the limbic system?
True
(T or F) Is the mammillary body part of the limbic system?
True
(T or F) Is the septal area part of the limbic system?
True
(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in atrophy of the interosseous muscles?
True
(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences?
True
(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head to the opposite side?
True
(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm and hand?
True
A lesion of the globus pallidus causes what disease?
Wilson's disease
A lesion of the mammillary bodies (bilateraly) produces what?
Wernicke-Korsakoff's encephalopathy (confabulations, anterograde amnesia)
A lesion of the optic chiasm produces?
bitemporal hemianopsia
A lesion of the right dorsal optic radiation (parietal lesion) produces?
left lower quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)
A lesion of the right Meyer's loop (temporal lobe) produces?
left upper quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)
A lesion of the right optic nerve produces?
right anopsia
A lesion of the right optic tract produces?
left homonymous hemianopsia
A lesion of the right visual fibers just prior to the visual cortex produces?
left hemianopsia with macular sparing
A lesion of the Striatum can cause which 2 diseases?
Huntington's and Wilson's disease
A positive Babinski is an indicator for a (UMN or LMN) lesion?
UMN lesion
A rupture of the middle menigeal artery causes what type of hematoma? (epidural or subdural)
epidural hematoma
A rupture of the superior cerebral veins causes what type of hematoma? (epidural or subdural)
subdural hematoma
An aneurysm of the anterior communicating artery may cause what type of defects?
visual defects
An aneurysm of what artery may cause CN III palsy?
posterior communicating artery
Are D1 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?
Excitatory
Are D2 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?
Inhibitory
Beginning with anterior communicating artery describe the path around the circle of Willis.
ant. comm. - ACA - ICA - post. comm. - PCA - PCA - post. comm. - ICA - ACA - ant. comm.
Bell's Palsy is seen as a complication in what 5 things?
AIDS, Lyme disease, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes (ALexander Bell with STD)
Brodmann's area 17 is?
principal visual cortex
Brodmann's area 22 is?
Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)
Brodmann's area 3,1,2 is?
principal sensory area
Brodmann's area 4 is?
principal motor area
Brodmann's area 41, 42 is?
primary auditory cortex
Brodmann's area 44, 45 is?
Broca's area (motor speech)
Brodmann's area 6 is?
premotor area
Brodmann's area 8 is?
frontal eye movement and pupilary change area
CN I has what function?
smell
CN I passes through what 'hole'?
cribriform plate
CN II has what function?
sight
CN II passes through what 'hole'?
optic canal
CN III has what 4 functions?
eye movement, pupil constriction, accommodation, eyelid opening
CN III inervates what 5 muscles.
medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, levator palpebrae superioris
CN III passes through what 'hole'?
superior orbital fissure
CN IV has what function?
eye movement
CN IV inervates what muscle.
superior oblique
CN IV passes through what 'hole'?
superior orbital fissure
CN IX has what 4 functions?
posterior 1/3 taste, swallowing, salivation (parotid), monitoring carotid body and sinus
CN IX passes through what 'hole'?
jugular foramen
CN V has what 2 functions?
mastication, facial sensation
CN V1 passes through what 'hole'?
superior orbital fissure
CN V2 passes through what 'hole'?
foramen rotundum
CN V3 passes through what 'hole'?
foramen ovale
CN VI has what function?
eye movement
CN VI inervates what muscle.
lateral rectus
CN VI passes through what 'hole'?
superior orbital fissure
CN VII has what 4 functions?
facial movement, anterior 2/3 taste, lacrimation, salivation(SL, SM glands)
CN VII passes through what 'hole'?
internal auditory meatus
CN VIII has what 2 functions?
hearing, balance
CN VIII passes through what 'hole'?
internal auditory meatus
CN X has what 5 functions?
taste, swallowing, palate elevation, talking, thoracoabdominal viscera
CN X passes through what 'hole'?
jugular foramen
CN XI has what 2 functions?
head turning, shoulder shrugging
CN XI passes through what 'hole'?
jugular foramen (descending) -- foramen magnum (ascending)
CN XII has what function?
tounge movements
CN XII passes through what 'hole'?
hypoglossal canal
Complete the muscle spindle reflex arc by placing the following in order: alpha motor, Ia afferent, muscle stretch, extrafusal contraction, intrafusal stretch.
muscle stretch - intrafusal stretch - Ia afferent - alpha motor - extrafusal contraction
Extrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?
alpha motor neuron
From which 3 spinal roots does long thoracic nerve arises?
C5, C6, C7
General sensory/motor dysfunction and aphasia are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)
anterior circle
Give 3 characteristics of a LMN lesion.
atrophy, flaccid paralysis, absent deep tendon reflexes
Give 3 charateristics of internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)
medial rectus palsy on lateral gaze, nystagmus in abducted eye, normal convergence.
Give 4 characteristics of an UMN lesion.
spastic paralysis, increased deep tendon reflexes, + Babinski, minor to no atrophy
Golgi tendon organs send their signal via what nerve?
group Ib afferents
Horner's Syndrome is present if the lesion in Brown-Sequard is above what level?
T1
How are the fibers of the corticospinal tract laminated? (legs/arms medial or lateral?)
arms- medial, legs-lateral
How are the fibers of the dorsal column laminated? (legs/arms medial or lateral?)
legs-medial, arms-lateral
How are the fibers of the spinothalmic tract laminated? (sacral/cervical medial or lateral?)
cervical-medial, sacral-lateral
How do glucose and amino acids cross the blood-brain barrier?
carrier-mediated transport mechanism
How does the hypothalamus control the adenohypophysis?
via releasing factors (ie. TRH, CRF, GnRF, etc.)
Huntington's patients typically have what type of movements?
Chorea
If the radial nerve is lesioned, what 2 reflexes are lost?
triceps reflex and brachioradialis reflex
If you break your humerus mid-shaft, which nerve would likely injure?
radial nerve
If you break your medial epicondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?
ulnar nerve
If you break your supracondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?
median nerve
If you break your surgical neck of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?
axillary nerve
In a lesion of the radial nerve, what muscle is associated with wrist drop?
extensor carpi radialis longus
Intrafusal fibers are encapsulated and make up muscle spindles that send their signal via what nerve?
group Ia afferents
Intrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?
gamma motor neuron
Is Bell's palsy an UMN or a LMN lesion?
LMN
Is the Babinski reflex (positive or negative) when the big toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan-out?
positive (pathologic)
Name 2 locations for lesions in Syringomyelia?
ventral white commissure and ventral horns
Name 3 locations for lesions in Vit.B12 neuropathy(Friedreich's ataxia)?
dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts
Name 7 functions of the hypothalamus?
Thirst/waterbalance, Adenohypophysis control, Neurohypophysis control, Hunger/satiety, Autonomic regulation, Temperature regulation, Sexual emotions. TAN HATS
Name the 4 foramina that are in the posterior cranial fossa?
internal auditory meatus, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, and foramen magnum.
Name the 5 foramina that are in the middle cranial fossa?
optic canal, superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum.
Name the 5 functions of the Limbic system?
Feeding, Fighting, Feeling, Flight, sex (F--K) [the famous 5 F's]
Name the 5 segments of the brachial plexus in order from proximal to distal.
roots - trunks - divisions - cords - branches
Name the type of movement with slow writhing movements (esp. the fingers)?
Athetosis
Name the type of movement with sudden, jerky, purposeless movements?
Chorea
Name the type of movement with sudden, wild flailing of one arm?
Hemiballismus
Neurons from the globus pallidus have what action on the ventral anterior nucleus?
Inhibitory
Neurons from the striatum have what action on the globus pallidus?
Inhibitory
Place the following in order (from light entering the eye to reflex). Pretectal nuclei, pupillary constrictor muscle, retina, ciliary ganglion, Edinger-Westphal nuclei, CN II, CN III.
retina, CN II, pretectal nuclei, Edinger-Westphal nuclei, CN III, ciliary ganglion, pupillary constrictor muscle
Stimulation from the paraventricular nucleus cause the release of what hormone?
oxytocin
Stimulation from the supraoptic nucleus cause the release of what hormone?
ADH (vasopressin)
The Blood-Brain Barrier is formed by what 3 structures?
choriod plexus epithelium, intracerebral capillary endothelium, astrocytes. (First Aid says Arachnoid but the brains say that’s a typo)
The central retinal artery is a branch off what larger artery?
ophthalmic artery
The embryologic defect of having a cervical rib can compress what 2 structures?
subclavian artery and inferior trunk of the brachial plexus
The fasciculus cuneatus contains fibers from the upper or lower body?
upper extremities
The fasciculus gracilis contains fibers from the upper or lower body?
lower extremities
The hippocampal formation is connected to the mammillary body and septal area via what structure?
fornix
The hippocampus has input from what two areas?
entorhinal cortex, septal area
The hippocampus has output to what two areas?
mammillary body, septal area
The infraorbital nerve is a branch off what larger nerve?
CN V2
The Nucleus Ambiguus has fibers from what 3 CNs?
CN IX, X, XII
The Nucleus Solitarius has fibers from what 3 CNs?
CN VII, IX, X
Traction or tear of the superior trunk of the brachial plexus causes what syndrome?
Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter's tip)
Vertigo, ataxia, visual deficits, and coma are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)
posterior circle
Visual fibers from the lateral geniculate body terminate on the upper and lower banks of what fissure?
Calcarine fissure
What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the achilles reflex?
S1
What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the biceps reflex?
C5
What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the patella reflex?
L4
What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the triceps reflex?
C7
What 2 areas have sensation deficit in a lesion of the median nerve?
lateral palm/thumb and the radial 2 1/2 fingers
What 2 areas have sensation deficit in a lesion of the ulnar nerve?
medial palm and the ulnar 1 1/2 fingers
What 2 cutaneus nerves are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?
posterior brachial cutaneous and posterior antebrachial cutaneous
What 2 spinal roots make up the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus?
C8, T1
What 2 spinal roots make up the superior trunk of the brachial plexus?
C5, C6
What 2 structures pass through the internal auditory meatus?
CN VII, VIII
What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the musculocutaneus nerve?
difficulty flexing the arm, variable sensory loss
What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the ulnar nerve?
weak intrinsic muscles of the hand, Pope's blessing
What 3 blood barriers does the body have?
blood-brain, blood-gas, blood-testis
What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?
coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis
What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?
triceps brachii, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus
What 3 structures pass through the foramen magnum?
spinal roots of CN XI(ascending), brainstem, vertebral arteries
What 3 structures pass through the optic canal?
CN II, ophthalmic artery, central retinal vein
What 4 'muscles' does the radial nerve innervate?
Brachioradialis, Extensors of the wrist and fingers, Supinator, Triceps. (BEST)
What 4 areas is there decreased output in Parkinson's?
substantia nigra pars compacta, globus pallidus, ventral anterior nucleus, cortex
What 4 movements are limpaired in a lesion of the ulnar nerve?
wrist flextion, wrist addduction, thumb adduction, and adductiont of the 2 ulnar fingers
What 4 movements are lost in a lesion of the median nerve?
forearm pronation, wrist flexion, finger flexion, and several thumb movements
What 4 structures pass through the jugular foramen?
CN IX, X, XI(descending), jugular vein
What 4 things do the lateral striate arteries supply?
internal capsule, caudate, putamen, globus pallidus
What 5 spinal nerves that make up the brachial plexus?
C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
What 5 structures pass through the supperior orbital fissure?
CN III, IV, V1, VI, ophthalmic vein
What 5 types of cells make up the suportive cells of the CNS/PNS?
Astrocytes, Microglia, Oligodendroglia, Schwann cells, Ependymal cells.
What are 2 characteristics of Tabes Dorsalis?
impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia
What are 3 clinical findings of the arm in Erb-Duchenne palsy?
arm hangs by the side, medially rotated, forearm is pronated
What are the 2 classic causes of Erb-Duchenne palsy?
blow to the shoulder and trauma during birth
What are the 3 classic symptoms of Horner's syndrome?
ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis
What are the 4 classic findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
ipsi motor paralysis(spastic), ipsi loss of dorsal column, contra loss of spinothalamic, ipsi loss of ALL sensation at the level of the lesion
What are the input and output of the anterior nucleus of the thalamus?
input - mammillary body, output - cingulate gyrus
What are the input and output of the cingulate gyrus?
input - anterior nucleus of the thalamus, output - entorhinal cortex
What are the input and output of the entorhinal cortex?
input - cingulate gyrus, output - hippocampal formation
What are the input and output of the mammillary body?
input - hippocampal formation, output - anterior nucleus of the thalamus
What are the input and output of the septal area?
input - hippocampal formation, output - hippocampal formation
What artery do the lateral striate branch off of?
internal carotid artery
What artery does the anterior inferior cerebellar artery branch off of?
basilar artery
What artery does the anterior spinal artery branch off of?
vertebral artery
What artery does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery branch off of?
vertebral artery
What artery does the superior cerebellar artery branch off of?
basilar artery

Geez wouldn't it have been easier to just give us a link? Thanks lol.

__________________
An Enigma Wrapped in a Riddle Doused in a Conundrum