Well, my endocrine and female thoughts are getting all screwed up..... PCOS presents with high levels of LH, low levels of FSH, and excess androgen production. Okay. I'm looking at a case where the patient has these things, plus endometrial thickening and secondary amenorrhea lasting 8 months (and all the other PCOS things you'd see)

I am really confused by this. So if you have decreased FSH, you would have a decreased proliferative phase, right? But if you have increased LH, wouldn't that cause ovulation??? Or is the FSH low enough that there is no mature follicle? And if that's true, then why the endometrial change? I don't get the hormonal mechanism for the "polycystic" part, or the thickened endometrium.

Something's not clicking...help me out! Thanks a lot

andy